Martial Performance


Rules Discussion


How would Martial Performance interact with feats like dual Onslaught (and others who do damage on a miss)?

Martial Performance:

Quote:
Your muse has taught you how to handle a wider variety of weapons than most bards, empowering you to effortlessly blend your performance into combat tools. When you have a courageous anthem composition cantrip active, and you damage an enemy with a Strike, the spell’s duration is extended by 1 round. You can extend an individual casting only once in this way.

Dual Onslaught:

Quote:
When you lash out with both weapons, you leave no room for the target to escape your attack. When you use Double Slice, if you miss with both Strikes, choose one of the two weapons and apply the effects of a hit with that weapon. You can't choose a weapon if your attack roll with that weapon was a critical failure, meaning you still miss entirely if both attack rolls were critical failures.

Am I correct to read it as: "since it only requires damage to be dealt, and not a "successful Strike" that means it triggers normally."?


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No. There was no damage from a Strike. The only damage was from Dual Onslaught ability which is not a Strike and does not include any Strikes.


Errenor wrote:
No. There was no damage from a Strike. The only damage was from Dual Onslaught ability which is not a Strike and does not include any Strikes.

When you Hit (with a strike), you apply damage, and extend the duration.

Aren't all those "effects of a hit" (of a Strike)?

And with dual Onslaught you do apply "the effects of a hit", not only the damage, no?

Grand Archive

If you consider martial performance to be an "effect of a hit" then it aught to work. I don't see why not


Powers128 wrote:
If you consider martial performance to be an "effect of a hit" then it aught to work. I don't see why not

It's more like:

Isn't "damage from a Strike" an effect of "Being hit by that Strike"?


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Double Slice is two Strikes. Dual Onslaught aids in it doing damage even with two misses; it's not some instance of damage floating out there in a platonic void waiting for circumstance to summon it. In game, a character coordinates their attacks/Strikes with two weapons so well that one's nearly always bound to land. Parsing the language down to such granularity that this obvious truth becomes false breaks both the spirit of PF2's informal language and the spirit of the feat itself.

Unless one wants to foster an atmosphere of rules haggling, the feats should interact.


Brutal Finish on the other hand I'd set at a solid maybe.


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Guntermench wrote:
Brutal Finish on the other hand I'd set at a solid maybe.

why "maybe"?

i would have thought feats like that or Certain Strike that specifically say "the Strike gains this effect" would for sure qualify as the damage being from the Strike.


Pathfinder Lost Omens, Rulebook Subscriber

I agree with Castilliano.

I think this one is pretty clear. if you apply a hit its not applying a hit from something thats not a strike. its applying a hit from a strike. We dont need any language to tell us we cant apply a hit from a gouging claw instead of a strike right? we know its a strike and we will roll damage for a strike.
martial performance should interact with the strike damage Dual Onslaught enables.


shroudb wrote:
Guntermench wrote:
Brutal Finish on the other hand I'd set at a solid maybe.

why "maybe"?

i would have thought feats like that or Certain Strike that specifically say "the Strike gains this effect" would for sure qualify as the damage being from the Strike.

Mostly because I was feeling non-committal at the time.


shroudb wrote:
Errenor wrote:
No. There was no damage from a Strike. The only damage was from Dual Onslaught ability which is not a Strike and does not include any Strikes.

When you Hit (with a strike), you apply damage, and extend the duration.

Aren't all those "effects of a hit" (of a Strike)?
And with dual Onslaught you do apply "the effects of a hit", not only the damage, no?

I'm really suprised by this backlash (well, not really). This is as clear a case as it could ever be: did 'damage an enemy with a Strike' happen? No, not at all. All Strikes missed, there are no Strikes in the Dual Onslaught. How much clearer could this be?

I'm baffled and don't know what more possibly could be said.
This ability (Martial Performance) is already automatic on success, what more do people want?
Guntermench wrote:
Brutal Finish on the other hand I'd set at a solid maybe.

But this is just as clear 'yes', Strike there is basically the only thing that happens.


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Errenor wrote:
shroudb wrote:
Errenor wrote:
No. There was no damage from a Strike. The only damage was from Dual Onslaught ability which is not a Strike and does not include any Strikes.

When you Hit (with a strike), you apply damage, and extend the duration.

Aren't all those "effects of a hit" (of a Strike)?
And with dual Onslaught you do apply "the effects of a hit", not only the damage, no?

I'm really suprised by this backlash (well, not really). This is as clear a case as it could ever be: did 'damage an enemy with a Strike' happen? No, not at all. All Strikes missed, there are no Strikes in the Dual Onslaught. How much clearer could this be?

I'm baffled and don't know what more possibly could be said.
This ability (Martial Performance) is already automatic on success, what more do people want?
Guntermench wrote:
Brutal Finish on the other hand I'd set at a solid maybe.
But this is just as clear 'yes', Strike there is basically the only thing that happens.

All Strikes missed, but the effects of a Strike hitting, including the "damage of the Strike" happenned.


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Dual Onslaught rides on Double Slice, altering its outcome to make one of its misses into a hit. As Bluemagetim addressed, what hit is Dual Onslaught providing the damage from? A Strike.
Are you really saying the weapon didn't connect with the target?
There's no magic here, no bizarre factors, nor even mundane ones other than two Strikes. So yeah, it feels really crazy to hear somebody think there's no Strike doing the Strike damage, just this feat that somehow manifests Strike damage on this target due to fate? What?


Dual Onslaught does not turn a miss into a hit. It merely applies the damage that would have been done on a hit to the target. PF2 things that turn misses into hits say so specifically. The Strike still misses, but the damage it would have done is applied.

I'm with Errenor here.


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Lia Wynn wrote:

Dual Onslaught does not turn a miss into a hit. It merely applies the damage that would have been done on a hit to the target. PF2 things that turn misses into hits say so specifically. The Strike still misses, but the damage it would have done is applied.

I'm with Errenor here.

But Martial Performance doesn't require the Strike to Hit, only for the Strike to do damage.

And since you do apply all the effects of a "Hit with a Strike" that should be enough.


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Lia Wynn wrote:

Dual Onslaught does not turn a miss into a hit. It merely applies the damage that would have been done on a hit to the target. PF2 things that turn misses into hits say so specifically. The Strike still misses, but the damage it would have done is applied.

I'm with Errenor here.

The Strike doesn't have to count as a hit, nor a Success, as long as the Strike damages the enemy or damage comes from the Strike.

What is it you're imagining happens physically? Both weapons fail to contact, yet wounds spring into existence? Most of me is thinking of course you don't imagine that, except that's what you're describing: the Strike didn't hit, yet inflicted a wound (that just happens to match the damage a Strike would've done)?


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Pathfinder Lost Omens, Rulebook Subscriber

Lets go back to what is happening and then ask if that is what is required for marital performance.

How do we know what dice to roll?
Where does it dual onslaught tell you to do?
It tells you to apply the the effects of a hit with that weapon. how do you it with weapons? what is the direct reference of hitting or missing this ability is talking about? strikes with those weapons that missed.
There is no question dual onslaught applys strike damage. Its not saying you get a success but it is saying you get the result of a hit with the weapon. What is the result of a hit?
not just weapon damage listed on the sword or axe or whatever you also add in any damage benefit you have for the strike you made. why? because now that strike damage is being applied as if it hit.
IF dual onslaught said of both strikes miss apply the weapons damage die in damage Then the result would not be a strike but a damage rider from dual onslaught but that isnt what is being applies. here it is the strikes damage and all parameters of your strike (one of the ones you just made and missed on) are applied.

Now back to martial performance. Did you do damage with a strike?
You have to answer yes because one of your strikes did damage because that's what dual onslaught forces. it applys a hit from one of the two strikes you made and missed. that strike does hit. it is different from an ability that says dual onslaught does damage equal to what you would have done with a hit(thats very MTG sounding).


shroudb wrote:
And since you do apply all the effects of a "Hit with a Strike" that should be enough.

Maybe enough with disinformation already? It's very much NOT "Hit with a Strike". It's 'hit with that weapon'. Yes, it's very much different.

Castilliano wrote:
What is it you're imagining happens physically? Both weapons fail to contact, yet wounds spring into existence?

And you with all these disgustingly disingenuous 'manifests Strike damage on this target due to fate'. It's a hit with a weapon. Yes, it can be just a hit with a weapon, but not a Strike which is a specific term and a specific action.

Bluemagetim wrote:
How do we know what dice to roll?

Oh, I can help:

damage roll
You can thank me if you wish.


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Pathfinder Lost Omens, Rulebook Subscriber
Errenor wrote:
shroudb wrote:
And since you do apply all the effects of a "Hit with a Strike" that should be enough.

Maybe enough with disinformation already? It's very much NOT "Hit with a Strike". It's 'hit with that weapon'. Yes, it's very much different.

Castilliano wrote:
What is it you're imagining happens physically? Both weapons fail to contact, yet wounds spring into existence?
And you with all these disgustingly disingenuous 'manifests Strike damage on this target due to fate'. It's a hit with a weapon. Yes, it can be just a hit with a weapon, but not a Strike which is a specific term and a specific action.

What you are hitting with is 100% one of those specific strikes you missed with.

You still get to apply the damage from the weapon, your damage from str and any bonuses that strike had. if you had somehow had weapon surge from the zeal domain on you and missed with both weapons you would choose the weapon you placed zeal on and get the bonus damage. You are applying a hit from that specific weapon strike that missed. you are not applying just the weapon damage.
If you wanted to use the other weapon strike that missed it wouldn't get weapon surge because the other weapon strike had it. Everything about the hit is in reference to the one of the strikes you missed with.


Pathfinder Lost Omens, Rulebook Subscriber
Errenor wrote:


Bluemagetim wrote:
How do we know what dice to roll?

Oh, I can help:

damage roll
You can thank me if you wish.

You say that but you are not directly applying a damage roll. You are applying a hit. That hit is in refference to a strike that just missed, and yes you will roll damage but you will because you are applying the effect of a hit from a strike that calls for a damage roll.

Grand Archive

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Yep. Shrouds interpretation is valid. It's also very narratively sound.


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Errenor wrote:


Castilliano wrote:
What is it you're imagining happens physically? Both weapons fail to contact, yet wounds spring into existence?

And you with all these disgustingly disingenuous 'manifests Strike damage on this target due to fate'. It's a hit with a weapon. Yes, it can be just a hit with a weapon, but not a Strike which is a specific term and a specific action.

Not disingenuous when Lia Wynn wrote:

"Dual Onslaught does not turn a miss into a hit. It merely applies the damage that would have been done on a hit to the target. PF2 things that turn misses into hits say so specifically. The Strike still misses, but the damage it would have done is applied.

I'm with Errenor here."

That's explicit; no hit, yet damage.
And my comment asks for clarification on what they're imagining occurs because yeah, that interpretation is wonky enough that apparently you're disgusted by it despite it coming from someone who agrees with you.

And I understand your point that a hit with a weapon doesn't have to be a Strike, I simply disagree in gaming spirit, intent, and rigorous rules adjudication too when dealing with these missed Strikes having one of their damages applied due to what you agree is a hit. I can imagine the devs rolling their eyes at how particular you wish to interpret their informal words. I am so glad Paizo left behind 3.X/PF1 madness, yet the quibbling continues.

Sovereign Court

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Yeah, to me "applying the effects of a hit with that weapon" and doing damage, is close enough to "damaging with a Strike". The feat basically says that one of the Strikes that missed hits after all.

I also don't think it's too good to be true. You need to cast Courageous Anthem and do Double Slice in the same turn, so you're only going to pull this off if the enemy was obliging you by standing exactly where you need them to.


Castilliano wrote:
Lia Wynn wrote:

Dual Onslaught does not turn a miss into a hit. It merely applies the damage that would have been done on a hit to the target. PF2 things that turn misses into hits say so specifically. The Strike still misses, but the damage it would have done is applied.

I'm with Errenor here.

The Strike doesn't have to count as a hit, nor a Success, as long as the Strike damages the enemy or damage comes from the Strike.

What is it you're imagining happens physically? Both weapons fail to contact, yet wounds spring into existence? Most of me is thinking of course you don't imagine that, except that's what you're describing: the Strike didn't hit, yet inflicted a wound (that just happens to match the damage a Strike would've done)?

Hit Points are not, nor have they ever been, just wounds.

Hit Points

Dual Onslaught triggers when you miss with two Strikes. If you miss with a Strike, that Strike clearly did not hit. Martial Performance clearly states that the damage comes from a Strike. The damage comes from Dual Onslaught, which is not a Strike, which again only happens if two Strikes miss.

Do I see it as wounds just appearing in this case? Or, for that matter, in any case where Dual Onslaught triggers? No, not at all. It could be the target takes some glancing blows, or is getting tired, or is worrying about dying.


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Lia Wynn wrote:
Castilliano wrote:
Lia Wynn wrote:

Dual Onslaught does not turn a miss into a hit. It merely applies the damage that would have been done on a hit to the target. PF2 things that turn misses into hits say so specifically. The Strike still misses, but the damage it would have done is applied.

I'm with Errenor here.

The Strike doesn't have to count as a hit, nor a Success, as long as the Strike damages the enemy or damage comes from the Strike.

What is it you're imagining happens physically? Both weapons fail to contact, yet wounds spring into existence? Most of me is thinking of course you don't imagine that, except that's what you're describing: the Strike didn't hit, yet inflicted a wound (that just happens to match the damage a Strike would've done)?

Hit Points are not, nor have they ever been, just wounds.

Hit Points

Dual Onslaught triggers when you miss with two Strikes. If you miss with a Strike, that Strike clearly did not hit. Martial Performance clearly states that the damage comes from a Strike. The damage comes from Dual Onslaught, which is not a Strike, which again only happens if two Strikes miss.

Do I see it as wounds just appearing in this case? Or, for that matter, in any case where Dual Onslaught triggers? No, not at all. It could be the target takes some glancing blows, or is getting tired, or is worrying about dying.

Duel Onslaught doesn't do JUST damage.

Dual Onslaught does EVERYTHING that happens "on a hit" (of the Strike missed).

"Damage from a Strike" sounds exactly like something that happens "on a hit".


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shroudb wrote:
Lia Wynn wrote:
Castilliano wrote:
Lia Wynn wrote:

Dual Onslaught does not turn a miss into a hit. It merely applies the damage that would have been done on a hit to the target. PF2 things that turn misses into hits say so specifically. The Strike still misses, but the damage it would have done is applied.

I'm with Errenor here.

The Strike doesn't have to count as a hit, nor a Success, as long as the Strike damages the enemy or damage comes from the Strike.

What is it you're imagining happens physically? Both weapons fail to contact, yet wounds spring into existence? Most of me is thinking of course you don't imagine that, except that's what you're describing: the Strike didn't hit, yet inflicted a wound (that just happens to match the damage a Strike would've done)?

Hit Points are not, nor have they ever been, just wounds.

Hit Points

Dual Onslaught triggers when you miss with two Strikes. If you miss with a Strike, that Strike clearly did not hit. Martial Performance clearly states that the damage comes from a Strike. The damage comes from Dual Onslaught, which is not a Strike, which again only happens if two Strikes miss.

Do I see it as wounds just appearing in this case? Or, for that matter, in any case where Dual Onslaught triggers? No, not at all. It could be the target takes some glancing blows, or is getting tired, or is worrying about dying.

Duel Onslaught doesn't do JUST damage.

Dual Onslaught does EVERYTHING that happens "on a hit" (of the Strike missed).

"Damage from a Strike" sounds exactly like something that happens "on a hit".

Right.

If there's poison on a blade, that poison is conveyed.
If there's a bleed effect from say a Sneak Attack, there's bleeding.
One might even say that one of the effects of a hit that in turn damages the target is that the Composition gets extended another round.

It operates like a Strike, so even if one wishes to label it a "hit" instead, the effects are as if a hit from a Strike. If one argues it's only a "hit" from a weapon, one would have to subtract lots of static bonuses from the wielder, and I doubt anybody accepts that (I hope).


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RAW I would say you do not meet the requirements with Dual Onslaught to activate Martial Performance.

As a GM, I'd probably allow it. Doesn't seem overpowered to me. Not sure a more uniform game like PFS would allow a ruling like this for Dual Onslaught, but I don't think a GM would be giving a player too much to rule the hit from Dual Onslaught activated Martial Performance. It only works every other round anyway.


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Pathfinder Lost Omens, Rulebook Subscriber

I think the hang up here is a miss interpretation that dual onslaught is actually doing damage. It's not. it is only telling the player to apply a hit. Specifically the hit from a strike that missed from double slice is doing damage. A strike is doing damage. If there was no strike that missed you wouldnt have any parameters of a hit to apply. you cannot reach out and pull some generic hit parameters of a weapon and use those you have to use the parameters set by a missed strike from that turn from one of double slices 2 missed strikes.

Dark Archive

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I mean guys, you're arguing about a L14 feat on a melee TWF bard. Whoever is playing that PC needs all the help they can get since they're forever a proficiency level behind on the weapon, wasting tons of WBL on weapons they don't need, wasting turns setting up double slice instead of casting spells, AND it only works at best every other turn IF they miss both strikes but don't critically fail both. Like talk about super niche.

Here is the math of what you're talking about:

Moderate AC (L14-L20): Average of 16.4% chance of working for ~4.8 DPR per turn.

High AC (L14-L20): Average of 20.75% chance of working for ~6.08 DPR per turn.

These are level ranges were people are getting extra reactions, permanent flight, and way more powerful feats. Level ranges where martials are doing ~100+ DPR (making the DPR increase here negligible). Also this is only saving you 1 action per 2 rounds IF the set-up works perfectly.

The feat is bad for a bard (and really most PCs because the more accurate you are the less likely the feat is to work) and has little mechanical benefit.

This entire thread is a real race to the bottom. If we're going to get overly harsh with RAW, lets at least pick something that is relevant to the meta of the game. Not this corner case caster beat down.

Even the logic being applied here is bad. If I throw a bomb and it does splash damage on a failed strike, the precursor activity/action DID damage. People are trying to split hairs as to what caused that damage because you 'missed' but honestly why can't it be the entire causal chain? If I dual onslaught, miss a bunch, but you stubbed your toe because you had to dodge back then you DID take damage from my 'striking' even if it was Strike -> Dodge -> Stub Toe. The fact that 'dodge' exists in the casual event sequence doesn't make it any less part of the casual event sequence that STEMS from my strike. The narrative arc/verisimilitude is never broken and we can except that the feat is a little more 'flavour to taste' in terms of what is happening to cause damage vs. having such prescriptive language so as to raise more issues. I swear if the feat said you stub your toe because of the dodge caused by the strike, people would be in here arguing that it won't work on monsters that don't have toes!

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