Spell Resistance Vs. Magic Items


Rules Questions


Hi all,

This came up in a session the other night and I'd like to get a clear answer. What determines whether a Magic items abilities are subject to Spell Resistance?

Some are easy, use the item as the spell. Ring of Invisibility.

Others are less so such as the Maze-Like effect of Other Worldly Kimono Which is only similar to the Maze Spell.

Or

Galvanic Gauntlets.

Primarily, I have been under the assumption that all effects created my magic items are Spell or Spell-Like effects which would be subject to Spell Resistance (Unless otherwise noted). This has since been brought into question and now I would like to know if there is a strict answer or guideline to determine this. OR if I will have to just come to my own conclusion.

Thanks for the help in advance.


unless the item produces an actual spell effect (like a wand), then there is no spell resistance, if it did, it would be in the description of the item or the items effect.


TxSam88 wrote:
unless the item produces an actual spell effect (like a wand), then there is no spell resistance, if it did, it would be in the description of the item or the items effect.

So does that apply to items like the kimono listed above? It creates something similar to the spell effect, but is it the spell?


TeggerTheTank wrote:
TxSam88 wrote:
unless the item produces an actual spell effect (like a wand), then there is no spell resistance, if it did, it would be in the description of the item or the items effect.
So does that apply to items like the kimono listed above? It creates something similar to the spell effect, but is it the spell?

it does not list the spell used, it does not list any spell resistance, so yeah, no spell resistance for that. (It also doesn't list a VS SR)

Community / Forums / Pathfinder / Pathfinder First Edition / Rules Questions / Spell Resistance Vs. Magic Items All Messageboards

Want to post a reply? Sign in.