| Zartos |
Situation: the villain is wearing a ring of invisibility. My bard used "See Invisibility" and wants to dispel its invisibility by using the "Dispel Magic" spell, and then specifically this part: "You can also use a targeted dispel to specifically end one spell affecting the target"
My questions:
Would the dispel magic indeed end the villains invisibility? If so, can the villain reuse the ring the next turn to turn invisible again? And would that take a standard action?
Wouldn't it be better for the bard to target the ring for 1d4 rounds of suppression? But could he then somehow know that the effect is created by the ring, and not by the villain casting "Greater Invisibility"?
| zza ni |
unless the bard know of the ring (or see the enemy say a word and vanish without casting a spell - ring is activated by action so normally a command word) he would think the enemy just have invisibility cast on it.
dispelling the invisibility will make the enemy show, but as the ring is unaffected he could just reactivate it on his turn, at this point the bard might learn that it's an item that gives invisibility and target that next.
using the ring is a standard action and unless it was targeted with the dispel to make it non magical for a few rounds can be used round after round.
what is this about greater invisibility?
why would the bard think that the ring effect has anything to do with it? you do know that while being invisible by the ring, if the enemy attack the invisibility ends and he shows up? (he'll then have to reuse he ring). the ring doesn't give a greater invisibility effect that would allow attacking and staying hidden. it is a ring of invisibility. not a ring of greater invisibility (which isn't a standard item and should cost a ton more, if you dare put one in your game, i think it's too game breaking until high levels).
Diego Rossi
|
By activating this simple silver ring, the wearer can benefit from invisibility, as the spell.
When I use a magic item like ring of invisibility or hat of disguise that can be activated to gain the effects of a spell, does the wording "as the spell" also include the spell’s duration?
Yes, such items' effects have a duration, as indicated by the spell’s duration and the item’s caster level. If the item has no daily use limit, however, you can simply use the item again to reset the duration.
This kind of item has the problem of keeping things from earlier editions and not clarifying how it works adequately. And that Paizo never really explained what is an effect.
The big unclear point is that "the ring has an effect" instead of "the ring cast a spell".
- If the ring has an effect, it is the ring that provides the effect, so you need to target the ring, even if the effect is limited to the duration of a spell. The effect stays with the ring and depends on the ring's presence and functionality.
- If the ring casts a spell, the spell effect is completely detached from the ring. While the spell persists you can remove the ring and the spell will still work, and to end it you need to target the spell. Temporarily deactivating the ring wouldn't affect the spell.
RAW, the effect of the ring of invisibility seems the first one, the ring produces an effect, don't cast a spell.
EAI, considering Paizo's dislike for "spell in a can" items, I think it should work as RAW above, but people can disagree, as it isn't really clear cut.
| Azothath |
Situation: the villain is wearing a ring of invisibility. My bard used "See Invisibility" and wants to dispel its invisibility by using the "Dispel Magic" spell, and then specifically this part: "You can also use a targeted dispel to specifically end one spell affecting the target"
My questions:
Would the dispel magic indeed end the villains invisibility? If so, can the villain reuse the ring the next turn to turn invisible again? And would that take a standard action?
Wouldn't it be better for the bard to target the ring for 1d4 rounds of suppression? But could he then somehow know that the effect is created by the ring, and not by the villain casting "Greater Invisibility"?
Yes, you can attempt to dispel the Greater Invisibility or Invisibility.
Yes, the ring can recreate the effect the next turn.Essentially your GM should ask your Bard to make a Spellcraft or Knowledge Arcana check, then give you an appropriate answer.
Honestly you can already see it's NOT going to be an effective tactic unless you just want a round of delay AND you let your BBEG KNOW you can see him. Why not do something more effective? As a bard you have skills and are more effective with buffs, emotive and sonic spells. There are many ways to even out the odds with invisibility; darkness, fog, blur, blink, displacement, faerie fire, ... or stealing the ring.
| Zartos |
Thanks for your answers. I'll treat it as a spell that was cast on the creature that can be dispelled, but reactivated the next turn by the villain.
It is a regular invisibility, so I assume offensive casting would have ended the invisibility anyways. But now I have the option to disappear again when things get challenging.