HammerJack |
Yes, it also makes Armor Storm an extremely competitive fighting style.
On the opposite side, it adds an extra threat to being surrounded by NPC enemies, with the accuracy to land combat maneuvers.
Revengeancer |
It is clarified under the rules of what an attack of opportunity even is and what triggers attacks of opportunity.
Quotes taken directly from CRB:
"Sometimes a combatant in a melee lets her guard down or takes a reckless action. In this case, combatants near her can take advantage in her lapse in defense to attack her for free."
That's the description of what an attack of opportunity is, and then a few lines lower it describes threatened squares and includes this quote:
"An enemy that takes certain actions while in a threatened square provokes an attack of opportunity from you."
Therefore, there is no such thing as an attack of opportunity against the one not performing the current action. Hopes this clears it up.
BigNorseWolf |
Therefore, there is no such thing as an attack of opportunity against the one not performing the current action. Hopes this clears it up.
It doesn't This does though
Does forced movement provoke attacks of opportunity?
Yes. If a creature moves or is moved out of its space, it provokes attacks of opportunity (unless otherwise stated).
The rules are not computer code. Action is there being used colloquially not mechanically.
Revengeancer |
In that case I will bring up the fact that Paizo had nothing to do with the creation of Attacks of Opportunity and that it stopped being the spiritual successor to 3.5 D&D a long time ago. Since you are referencing rules from a different game, I will too. Coming from the company that original offered up the idea of attacks of opportunity and what it is meant to represent, which is the act of a target dropping their guard.
5e PHB:
"You also don't provoke an opportunity attack when you teleport or when someone or something moves you without using your movement, action, or reaction. For example, you don't provoke an opportunity attack if an explosion hurls you out of a foe's reach or if gravity causes you to fall past an enemy. (PHB 195)"
Sage Advice Compendium:
"A creature doesn’t provoke an opportunity attack if it is moved without the use of its movement, its action, or its reaction. For example, the effect of the antipathy/sympathy spell requires the target to use its movement, meaning that it would provoke opportunity attacks when it does so.
Similarly, dissonant whispers requires the target to move using its reaction (if available), so that activity also provokes opportunity attacks. In contrast, a creature that’s pushed by a gust of wind spell does not provoke opportunity attacks."
Attack of opportunity is meant to represent the subject taking an action that makes them drop their guard which opens them up for an attack, not meant to represent a melee characters ability to react to things moving past them. I know the 5e argument is pretty moot but so is Starfinder, and to be honest I wouldn't even take Paizo's word for it at this point as the spirit of game design has changed so drastically.
But let's say, two characters are trapped in a whirlpool next to each other locked in combat, are they provoking attacks of opportunity vs each other because the whirlpool is moving both of them out of their threatened squares. If someone is falling at terminal velocity past a fighter does he get a free swing on them or rather would they have to have the preparation to hold an action to time with the falling subject?
Revengeancer |
I guess we're lost again. But since there hasn't been errata ever done on Pathfinder to clarify, I'm going to take the RAW of the definition of what an attack of opportunity is and what can trigger it rather than assume the word "movement" in the subtext of actions which can trigger it is enough to contradict that description. It lines up with what it's meant to represent. Being forced back while you're still on guard isn't a target taking an action which results in them dropping their guard and opening them up.
BigNorseWolf |
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Errata from Starfinder clarifies it?
Yes in starfinder starfinder FAQ clarifies it, hence the quote and the link.
In that case I will bring up the fact that Paizo had nothing to do with the creation of Attacks of Opportunity and that it stopped being the spiritual successor to 3.5 D&D a long time ago.
there's no reason for this.Starfinder is the closest thing to 3.5 currently still in print by far.
the rule is for starfinder and starfinder only. there's no reason to try to apply it over to pf2 or to take something from 5e, made by a completely different company, back 3 steps along the evolution chain and then forward three steps to get a ruling on its cousin. Or vice versa.
You're trying to make an argument against something where there's a direct statement that you're wrong. That absolutely doesn't work. It REALLy doesn't work when you're making terrible arguments from 3 other systems.
Starfinder has a different armor class and combat maneuver system than any other game. Its a different game even from pathfinder where it was really close. Starfinder has combat maneuvers that are really hard to do if you're not invested in them , enemies don't need to invest in defenses against them at all, and movement enhancers are a dime a dozen, and the difference between an attack and a full attack is a lot less . Shoving someone a few feet doesn't have the combat effect on a starfinder as it does on a pathfinder.
I'm going to take the RAW of the definition of what an attack of opportunity is and what can trigger it rather than assume the word "movement" in the subtext of actions which can trigger it is enough to contradict that description.
It's not an assumption. Make whatever house rules you want in a home game, but the objective answer in blue and white linked for you is that forced movement provokes unless stated otherwise.
I would also note that you're making a logical error: When something says A ---> B (taking an action ---> provokes an attack of opportunity) you cannot affirm the consequent (there was no action---> therefore no aoo) Colloquially in language that is the implication but its not spelled out. You have a colloquialism somewhere no matter what.
Which is why its a bad idea to rest certainty in a rule on any one data point. You need a perfectly coherent system and a perfect logician to extrapolate rules with certainty. Humans don't write those, especially not in english.
But let's say, two characters are trapped in a whirlpool next to each other locked in combat, are they provoking attacks of opportunity vs each other because the whirlpool is moving both of them out of their threatened squares.
The weirdness in the system has been noted for a while now.
you're trying to model a permanently moving world in turn based combat. It goes wonky. No, the immovable rod does not zoom off at 24,000 miles an hour and bury itself a mile and a half underground.
If someone is falling at terminal velocity past a fighter does he get a free swing on them or rather would they have to have the preparation to hold an action to time with the falling subject?
Yes. Basically you just stick your sword out pointy end up...