I am unsure on the answer.
My player has a +2 fey bane sword. She swings at +16 for 1d8+8 damage. Thus vs fey its +18 for 1d8+8+2d6 damage.
If she uses the sword on a fey creature non lethally she swings at a -4 I know but would the bane still work. Does the 2d6 for bane deal nonlethally and does she still get her +2?
(Ps sorry I'm on my phone so grammer sucks.)
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I'd say the bane would apply as non-lethal damage.
The extra damage is the same type as the weapon is. For example, used normally the sword would do an extra 2d6 of slashing damage. Used non-lethally, the improved enhancement bonus and extra damage should apply.
BTW, since the sword is treated as having an enhancement bonus +2 better than normal, in your above example it shouuld +18 to hit for 1d8+10+2d6. Enhancement bonus applies to hit and to damage.
The extra damage from bane isn't mentioned as some energy type or its own kind of damage, so as SCMT said, it deals the same damage as the weapon.
Should also deal nonlethal, then.
The +2 to damage is already counted in.
I didn't realize bane damage was the same as the weapon. I've always counted it as "true" damage since its made specifically to harm that creatures I've always let it bypass all DR.
I'm pretty sure RAW, it does not bypass DR nor is any sort of special or "true" damage. If you have 10 str and a +1 bane dagger (so 1d4+3+2d6 damage) and roll terribly for a total of 8 damage and the foe has DR 10, you'd do no damage, for example.
My player has a +2 fey bane sword. She swings at +16 for 1d8+8 damage. Thus vs fey its +18 for 1d8+8+2d6 damage.
The +2 to damage is already counted in.
Huh? That doesn't match what you wrote above.
When used against an orc it is merely a +2 sword; so, you state +16 to-hit with 1d8+8 damage. I'll assume this is correct.
Used against a dryad it is treated as a +4 sword; hence, +18 to-hit and should be 1d8+10 plus 2d6.