Invisibility and charm

[Michael Brock]

If a wizard is invisible and casts charm person on a foe, is this considered an attack and he loses invisibility?

[azhrei_fje]

Yes. "Areas or effects that include foes."

[concerro]

Michael Brock wrote:

If a wizard is invisible and casts charm person on a foe, is this considered an attack and he loses invisibility?

Yes.

From the PRD:

For purposes of this spell, an attack includes any spell targeting a foe or whose area or effect includes a foe.

Charm person is a targeted spell.

[concerro]

azhrei_fje wrote:

Yes. "Areas or effects that include foes."

Stop your ninjering. I don't even think that is a word.

[azhrei_fje]

concerro wrote:

Stop your ninjering. I don't even think that is a word.

Heh-heh. You just typed more than I did, so I was able to his the Submit button first. But I bow to your verbosinessicity. (I don't think that's a word either.)