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Heya all
If a trap unleashes a monster is it an auto-fail? Twice now I've had a GM (the same one) force a fight on the party because he would force the party to trip traps even though both times I was actively detecting traps. Both games I rolled in the 30s for perception. Now, afterwards, when I went to prep the adventure, I found out that they were traps and had a perception and disable DC which I beat (well I beat the perception and wasn't even allowed the disable.)
Personally, I think that if a trap and a perception DC and a Disable DC it should allow the players to 1 see it, 2 disable it, and 3 to bypass the fight. I mean that's what a rogue does.
As it is I'm going to avoid that GM like the plague.
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Ok, you are correct.
Stranger Within:
So there still would have been a fight in the stranger within but I would have not received the 8d6 damage if I could have tried to disable the trap part of both oozes.
goblinblood dead:
However, the pit trap with the exploding skeletons I should have been able to disable.
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stranger within:
As long as the ooze stayed in the form of a trap, you should have been able to disable the trap portion of the ooze.
goblinblood dead:
if I remember this correctly, the skeletons are actually in the pit? Disabling a pit means that you never fall into it. So yeah, you should have been able to disable the pit and never experience the skeletons.
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Spoiler:
The (rapidly becomming popular) one mentioned in the stranger within is a deathtrap ooze The trap doesn't release the monster, the trap IS the monster. Reading the description I'm not sure you CAN disable it. Disabling takes time, and as soon as you start poking it, it says "AHAH!" and attacks. I think it can go off at you in trap mode if it wants to.