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Hi!
Seems I´ve found the right thread to dive deeper into the mysteries of the "Greater Overrun" feat. Since I´m going to play a mounted cavalier I have a topic related question.

Case 1)
Assume Player A (impr. overrun feat, gr. overrun feat) makes an overrun attempt vs. Player B. A succeeds with his check, B is knocked prone and thus triggers an AoO. Right?

Case 2)
Assume Player A (impr. overrun feat, gr. overrun feat) makes an overrun attempt vs. Player B. THIS TIME Player A is a horse (that a cavalier is mounted on that horse doesn´t matter right now). Player A (horse) succeeds with the CMB check vs. B. According to case 1) nothing has changed here (except that player A is a horse now) and A would get an AoO (in the horse´s case a bite attack as the primary weapon I assume). Right?

Case 3)
Player A (the horse) makes an successful Overrun attempt vs. Player B. exactly like case 2).

NOW there is an cavalier (mounted comb. feat, trample feat) mounted on the horse. As said before the overrun attempt of the horse is succesful:

CMB is won by player A (horse): AoO (bite) vs. prone Player B.

Because the Cavalier also threatens Player B he will get an AoO (e.g. with his sword) vs. B as soon as B triggers the AoO due to the lost CM check.

Now the horse (&rider) move THROUGH Player B´s sqare.
@shadowChemosh: Where can I read in the rules that I move after the CM check through the enemies square? I´ve assumed so far that the actions run almost simultaneously during the round.

Due to the "trample" feat I get a HOOF attack vs. the prone character!
Since Trample doesn´t speak of an AoO and can be used without having the greater overrun feat I don´t think that these two sepak of the same attack (AoO with bite attack =! extra attack with hoof due to the rider´s training).

Summing up, both, cavalier and his horse) can make

1 AoO (horse´s bite)
1 AoO (cavalier´s attack e.g. with sword)
1 hoof attack (due to trample)

and then go on to finish the round.
Since the horse has made the overrun attempt as a std. action & moves it can make no more attacks in this round. BUT the cavalier still can make his single attack as a std. action after the horse has moved more than 5 ft. (Mounted Combat rules).

Any thoughts on that?

greetz
call_of_dagon

Thx for your explanations!

I think I´ll have it worked out that way!

Assuming you mean B attacks A.

A has a readied action to attack B if he gets in range.
B gets in range.
A's readied action is triggered, and he smacks B.
B then finishes his turn.

Interesting...

If A's readied action said specifically "If B uses a move action to get in range and attack me..." and then B was teleported into range, the ready wouldn't go off. But then, I would rephrase the Ready to be less specific.

Yeah, but as a DM I´ll do it same way for the players´opponents ;)

Meaning, my player says "I want to ready to hit anything that moves!" I'll confirm his action by saying "Ok, you ready a standard action to attack any enemy that comes within your range?"

Can you please elaborate this? Do you mean he HAS TO attack whatever comes into his range? Or can he choose not to take his triggered action if this case of an enemy arriving in his threatened area occurs (and thus not taking any action that round)?

(This has saved many familiars and mounts).

This would be the point of defining "enemy". There surely will be a discussion about a knight´s mount being count as an enemy (especially if mount and rider can be seen as a "union")

Also, this kind of sucks, and I've never seen anyone brace against a charge, so maybe some DM leniency wouldn't hurt.

That´s exactly what I think: The charger can easily anticipate that the opponent is readying a hit vs. a charge and thus could choose not to charge but take a move action. As a consequence the readied action wouldn´t trigger.

As a DM I also wouldn´t distinguish between charging/normal movement BUT I´ve question concerning the following scenario:

Player A is readying a Std. action if Player B comes (move action) to him to attack in Melee.

If Player B attacks Player B in melee - does Player A get to attack B?
Because without a readied action player A wouldn´t get an attack if B just moves to him and attacks in melee.

greetz
call_of_dagon

If I ready an action vs. an melee attack - do I have to distinguish between I ready vs 1) a charge & melee attack or 2)vs a "normal" move & melee attack?

I mean: Do I have to explicitly say that I ready vs. a charge or is the mode of my enemie´s movement to my char irrelevant when readying?

Since I´m going to play a mounted cavalier it´s very interesting to keep an eye to this combat mechanics...thx in advance,

call_of_dagon

Thx for the answer!

Another question:

Bracing vs. a charge (with a readied action) - is that only possible with weapons that have the brace description or with every weapon available?

Readying a Weapon against a Charge
You can ready weapons with the brace feature, setting them to receive charges. A readied weapon of this type deals double damage if you score a hit with it against a charging character.

Or grants a weapon with the brace description "just" more damage?

Seems that I´ve a topic related question here:

When someone charges you that has the mounted combat>ride by attack>spirited charge feat chain, it seems to me that both, rider and mount don´t get an attack of opportunity when riding by (and thus leaving the threatened area). Correct?

Does this also affect an opponent who whas readied his action vs this kind of charge and thus this opponent just gets one attack when the rider enters his threatened area but gets none when the rider is leaving?

greetz
call_of_dagon