Hi, so I have a few question about a few mechanics of nonlethal damage, especially as they pertain to Enforcer; I tried googling this for quite some time but overall there doesn't seem to be much out there regarding nonlethal.
If you're using the Enforcer feat (intimidate upon dealing nonlethal damage) while doing nonlethal against Undead (immune to nonlethal damage), then are you still able to Intimidate on hit? On one hand, your attack did hit and you are dealing nonlethal damage, even if they're not going to take damage no matter what you roll. On the other hand, they are immune to nonlethal damage so whether you're dealing damage is debatable. I guess what it comes down to is whether your character is still "dealing damage" if they hit an opponent that's immune to that damage type. Is it that you deal damage but they don't take any due to immunity (nullification on their side) or that you don't deal damage to immunity (nullification from your side).
Another question on the subject of nonlethal damage obtained from Blade of Mercy. If you have multiple damage types on your attack--e.g. + 1d6 Fire from Flames of the Faithful--then is it all converted to nonlethal? Or is it just the stuff that would've been slashing from your weapon and the additional stuff retains its original damage type?
On last question, this one on the wording of Enforcer. The second half of the ability states:
"If your attack was a critical hit, your target is frightened for 1 round with a successful Intimidate check, as well as being shaken for a number of rounds equal to the damage dealt."
I'm a bit unsure on how to interpret that last clause. Is it saying that when you crit you automatically inflict Shaken for X rounds? And then you roll Intimidate to see if you can inflict Frightened on top of that? Or does the Intimidate roll determine both the Shaken and Frightened conditions? The people I was discussing it with and I thought the placement of the comma implied the former (auto-Shaken, possible Frightened), but we really weren't sure. Phrasing definitely allows for both interpretations. Can anyone here offer some insight?
Thank you very much for your help, everyone!