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Do Dhampir count as undead?
Looks like the answer would be no - not normally.
but with this, as with all things, check with your GM. She may have changed it.
ah - a walk down memory lane, to a time when the world was a different place,
* and, closer to home - Season 5 - "Year of the Demon" ramps up... * Feb 26, 2013, Pathfinder Adventure Path #73: The Worldwound Incursion (Wrath of the Righteous 1 of 6) was released! * Pathfinder was still running on 1st edition, and * we were ... discussing... on the forums how the rules worked. Ah! Smells like... Necromancy!
Well almost 2 months that with my group we Finnish all the volo campaign and the halfing stone using Pathfinder Sistem and is was OMG to high core, I really enjoyed the game almost like rise of runelords whit aeon together I am sorry Zepheri, but I did not understand your statement above. And I am interested in what you are trying to say. SO, could you please re-word it and we can try again? Thank you.
Or something like that a Vermlek demon - only it is an undead "soul" that has been birthed into the body, not an actual physical body inside the body. (Is the previous soul still there? There are lots of questions that could be worked on there, without even getting into rules mechanics... I do kind of like the way OoTS handled it in the link I gave above... where the Vampires are having to deal with the former inhabitant of the body...and they are treated as two different individuals in the same body. But this mechanics of this could easily be several other threads...)
ok - there is another way to view the creation of a Vampire... You are not the same person at all.. in that story line (in Order of the Stick) the party cleric has been killed by a Vampire - and as a result has "risen" as a Vampire. But as Roy finally figures out - a Vampire is "just some undead thing hiding behind his face!". The point at which a Vampire raises from the dead is like the "birth" of a new creature. It may look like the person who used to inhabit the body - it may even have some of the former inhabitants memories, but it is "not the same person at all".
This was the exact place were it popped up. Carrion Crown Pt. 2. I slipped in a Wand of Speak w/Dead several encounters back and figured they would use it. Local Medical Examiner:
In fact, in an earlier filler adventure I had actually even had them get the copy of the report from the local Medical Examiner which included the "testimony" from an unidentified body with several Questions like - "What is your name?" and "Tell me about the events leading up to your death?" Spoilers for Carrion Crown pt. 2: So I figured they'd go to the Holy Sister of Justice and ask her as an officer of the Court to use the wand. That would get the "testimony" available in a timely fashion... and with the correct protocol. They actually brought in the bodies recovered back to the city and turned them over to the Desna Temple - though there was some discussion as to which temple to turn them over to. A couple of the PCs figured that Pharasma seemed better (dead body and all that), but the village had a chapel to Desna, and one of the PCs has one level of Cleric of Desna, so it was Desna. The scenario actually provides (a little information) for if the PCs dig up bodies (and SwD those), but the PCs veto'ed that idea when the CHA 5 dwarf suggested it. But they did recover 4 bodies that had not been recovered before. The only people from the village listed as still being available for the trial were the three sisters (who own a windmill!), who appear not to be related to the kids. So... Tomorrow we continue the adventure, and I'll see what my players decide to do.
Is casting Speak w/Dead illegal? or "evil"? Should it be? This question grows out of another thread dealing with Necromancy... so here is the link to over there...
but here's the gist of the background to my question... I'm currently running an AP set in Ustalov and the PCs have picked up a wand of Speak w/Dead. (I figured it would help me reveal some of the backstory that otherwise the PCs may never learn). After recovering the body of a murder victim, conversation came around to how they were continuing the investigation... And as no one suggested it, I had an NPC ask why they don't just cast the spell from the wand on the murder victim and ask it for details of the crime. The person with the wand stated that they figured using the spell would at best get the evidence/testimony disallowed in court and at worse would get them attacked by the Town Guard. This caught me off guard. "Why" I asked? "That spell is Necromancy - and this area has a History of trouble with Necromancy. We just figured that if we cast the spell the locals would attack us." Whereas I figured it would be part of the SOP for Police Departments in major cities. Bring in a Cleric of Pharasma and have them ask the body who killed them. After some discussion about the spell Speak w/Dead, we decided to go with my interpretation... I am the GM after all. But heck, what does everyone else think? Should casting Speak w/Dead be legal/illegal? Is it "evil" or even "Evil"? or just "Icky" (deals with bodies after all). Is casting Speak w/Dead on a corpse more or less evil than casting Zone of Truth (a compulsion) to force a living person to speak only truth?
I'm currently running an AP set in part of Varisia (one of several that are set there). and the PCs have picked up a wand of Speak w/Dead. (I figured it would help me reveal some of the backstory that otherwise the PCs may never learn). After recovering the body of a murder victim, conversation came around to how they were continuing the investigation... As no one suggested it, I had an NPC ask why they don't just cast the spell on the murder victim and ask it for details of the crime. The person with the wand stated that they figured using the spell would at best get the evidence/testimony disallowed and at worse would get them attacked by the Town Guard. This caught me off guard. Why I asked? "That spell is Necromancy - and this area has a History of trouble with Necromancy. We just figured that if we cast the spell the locals would attack us." Whereas I figured it would be part of the SOP for Police Departments in major cities. Bring in a Cleric of Pharasma and have them ask the body who killed them. After some discussion about the spell Speak w/Dead, we decided to go with my interpretation... I am the GM after all. But heck, what does everyone else think? Is casting Speak w/Dead on a corpse more or less evil than casting Zone of Truth (a compulsion) to force a living person to speak only truth?
I remember playing in a home game where there was a little mountain country (picture Tibet) where it was common practice to Animate Dead on your ancestors. A party of adventurers, on arriving in town found a Zombie chasing children is a fenced in yard. And did what adventurers do, only to be arrested for chopping up "Great Aunt Magrat". They had to pay to have her put back to gether and pay for the trama caused to the children who had been playing Zombie Tag with her. Real culture shock. Different cultures, different customs.
the best buff spell I've encountered for use with Undead would be Ablative Barrier... +2 AC, and "... the first 5 point of lethal damage the target takes from each attack are converted to nonlethal damage..." with a duration of 1 hour/level (or until it converts 5/level HP of damage), it makes Undead much harder to put down.
Well, it does feel a little abusive to me,,, but if that’s the way it’s intended to work, it becomes very tempting to utilize it myself. It just feels like a loop-hole to me, realizing that once you get 20 fame a PC can spend 4 PP to check off all the boxes. And if you are able to get a 40 on Kn(Nobility) or Diplomacy, you can switch your Day Job rolls over to recovering spent PP. This just feels... questionable.
Ok, I got asked about the following by one of my players, it's concerning the "Rising Star" boon. The boon states "...If you already have (or later gain) another boon or vanity that grants you a noble title in Taldor, you can immediately check five boxes."... The "Noble Title" Taldan Vanity from the Field Guide allows the player to buy a noble title (cost of 1PP, requirement of 20 Fame)... Vanities can be purchased more than once. Now for the question: Can a PC buy more than one "Noble Title" Vanities and check off 5 boxes for each? At the most extreme this would be buying 4 "Noble Titles" - say - the Duke of Cornwall, Earl of Carrick, Baron of Renfrew, & Lord of the Isles, and checking all the boxes on the boon, all at once. For a cost of 4 PP, gaining 4 titles and checking off all 20 of the boxes.
That doesn't matter BigNorseWolf. My {our?} argument against replay expansion has nothing to do with play opportunities. OK, I'll buy into your example. We're in your favorite pizza place, and there's enough fixings for XX weeks/months of "the food of the gods" then we're out completely. We can start re-cycling the stuff we've been pitching out back for the last 9 years.... Eventually we are going to have to re-use that stuff or move on to that new place cross the street, or SOMETHING - so the question is: Do we start dragging it back in the kitchen NOW? Mix it in with the stuff we're serving now? Or wait till the original stuff is all used up?
My experience and understanding indicates the vast majority of players still have plenty of PFS1 content they can play Well, it looks to me like the question is... do we wait until the creature is dead to animate the zombie or do we just cast the (Replay) spell now? To put it another way IMHO - the question is not so much do we cast the Animate Dead Campaign now?(well perhaps there are some Paladins in the readers who are objecting), it's do we let it bleed out first or shoot it in the head now?
so... I am really not understanding how chill touch works. "...You can use this melee touch attack up to one time per level..." combined with a Duration: instantaneous. SO... if a 3rd level Necromancer casts the spell - does he have to use a melee touch attack instantaneously? or does he "hold the charge"? can he use 2 weapon fighting to touch two/three creatures (Target is Creature or Creatures Touched up to 1 per level) or can he target the same creature twice in combat? or does he only get one touch attack with the spell a round if he targets more than one creature? How long can he "hold the charge"? a minute? a week? until his next spell is cast? Can he change the Targets after the spell is cast? or does he have to define them when he casts the spell - and then what if his target leaves the area? is it still "defined" as a target for that spell casting? For a simple 1st level Core spell, chill touch is really confusing...
I’m pretty sure it’s closer to a boon. It’s not a chronicle for playing a scenario/module. It’s a bonus chronicle that you’re awarded if you’ve played three specific modules. actually...
"It’s possible to get the bonus chronicle on multiple characters,..." why do you think this? The Bonus Chronicle is NOT an Evergreen - and can't even be assigned to a 1st level PC (it's Tier 2-4) - so (it would seem to me) it can only be assigned to a PC once per Player. Or am I missing some "Special Rules" like the part were it can't be assigned to a PC that has one of the Chronicles as a "place holder", where a PC will have had to play all three "for credit"? Unless the Bonus Chronicle is actually a Boon...
But it doesn't really matter anyway, because if the player already has a PC with the "Bonus Chronicle" assigned to it, they could not assign another "Bonus Chronicle" to a second PC. The Chronicle is not for an Evergreen scenario, and does not have a special exception, so can only be assigned to one PC player (and another for Judge Credits) anyway. Once assigned, it can't be assigned again (unless someone used a Judge Replay or something).
ok... but the section you quoted above...
is not text that is found on the chronicle... that text is not "crossed out" because it's actually in the Mod, and not on the chronicles, right? "Players who play through the entire module..." check...
I guess it would be because of the word "...earn..." - replaying for no credit NEVER lets a PC "earn" anything, it just costs the PC...
It clearly is not a "...condition acquired by playing the adventure." - it's not like the PC got a disease - they just picked up a zeroed out Chronicle... ;-)
Ok, someone asked me the following question, and I... don't know the answer. So I figured I'd ask it here and after all the fireworks died down maybe I'd be able to answer the question. 3 players (we'll call them A, B, & C) sit down to play Gallows of Madness part 3, with PCs they have played the other two parts with. In comes Player D, who has played Part 3 with another PC at 2nd level, but she offers to sit in and get a Zeroed out Chronicle for playing. She runs a 2nd level PC (same level or one below everyone else), and actually uses some consumables - so these are marked on her Chronicle. Because she had played it before, and she isn't "re-playing" she gets a "placeholder" Chronicle that is worth zero gold, XP and Fame. Now for the Gallows of Madness wrinkle... Would this Zero Chronicle count toward having chronicles for all three parts on the same PC - and thus qualify for the "Bonus" Chronicle? Thanks in advance for your insights!
thanks for the prompt reply... so, you feel it would be situational and not an auto-fall situation? I'm (mostly) trying to decide about buying a Hat of Disguise and whether I would be able to use it.
After all the problems I have had with a Paladin using Bluff (see this thread).
IN PFS play, if you were the table judge,
so there are only two options
From the Bonus Chronicle:
...When you earn this Chronicle sheet, you may choose whether or not to receive XP, Prestige Point, and gold rewards; you may instead choose to gain no XP and gold, but you instead earn 2 Prestige Points and still qualify for all of the boons and items on this sheet. If you elect to earn the full rewards, you gain 3 XP, 6 Prestige Points, and 3,711 gp (1,856 gp for characters use the slow track method of advancement). 1) gain 3 XP, 6 Prestige Points, and 3,711 gp (1.5 XP, 3PP, and 1,856 gp for characters use the slow track method of advancement), "and the boons and items on the sheet". or 2) 2 PP (1 PP for characters on slow track?) and the boons and items on the sheet? correct?
Ok, this is another one where the wording isn't very clear. I'm sure the writer knew what they wanted it to say, but... well, it isn't very clear to me. I'm putting it in a spoiler for those of you who have stumbled in here, but haven't played it... From the Bonus Chronicle:
...When you earn this Chronicle sheet, you may choose whether or not to receive XP, Prestige Point, and gold rewards; you may instead choose to gain no XP and gold, but you instead earn 2 Prestige Points and still qualify for all of the boons and items on this sheet. If you elect to earn the full rewards, you gain 3 XP, 6 Prestige Points, and 3,711 gp (1,856 gp for characters use the slow track method of advancement). SO... if we decide NOT to take the XP and gold, what do we get? a) 2 PP and the boons and items on the sheet?
Thanks for your help!
I do not believe that the Replacement Bonded Item must be the exact same type as the previous item. If a Wizard where to loose his Bonded Item which was a Staff, but recover a Magical Ring in the treasure from the adventure - she would undergo the ritual (and pay the costs) to make her new Replacement Bonded Item out of the Magical Ring (which would retain it's former Magical abilities). If she decided to instead use this finely made (Masterwork) broach she already owns (has paid for) into her Bonded Item, she undergoes the ritual (pays the cost in gold and time) and now has a Masterwork Broach (as yet unenhanced/non-magical) as her Bonded Item. At least that is the way I read that section of the rules. How is this wrong?
Nowhere does it say that the replacement must be a magic item. " A wizard can designate an existing magic item as his bonded item. " not " A wizard must designate an existing magic item as his bonded item." I see now... the full paragraph is: If a bonded object is damaged, it is restored to full hit points the next time the wizard prepares his spells. If the object of an arcane bond is lost or destroyed, it can be replaced after 1 week in a special ritual that costs 200 gp per wizard level plus the cost of the masterwork item. This ritual takes 8 hours to complete. Items replaced in this way do not possess any of the additional enchantments of the previous bonded item. A wizard can designate an existing magic item as his bonded item. This functions in the same way as replacing a lost or destroyed item except that the new magic item retains its abilities while gaining the benefits and drawbacks of becoming a bonded item. I'm reading this a little different. It seems to me the replacement has to be Masterwork, and it has to be paid for, but the restriction of "no special materials" only applies to the free first item. If we pay for a replacement made of special materials it is allowed. and we CAN (but are not required to) take an existing magic item (that is paid for) and use that as the Replacement. IMHO (by my reading of this paragraph.)
wait - this would mean that if someone were to sunder my bow (which is my Bonded Item) I would have to buy an enchanted bow to replace it? I couldn't just buy a Masterwork bow and pay the "replacement tax of 200 gp per level"? Worse yet, I couldn't just go buy a MW ring and make THAT my new Bonded Item? Is that what you are saying? Desired Gain for special material items: Hay, a Darkwood bow just looks Kewl! it fits the image of the Paladin in Black - like the old TV show. And Greenwood was out of fear of it being Sundered... Whipwood was just for completeness - to understand how it works.
Let me try one last time before I just give up on the Boards... Does a "Replacement Bonded item" have to be "magical" before it is selected, or can it be a Masterwork item? Does a "Replacement Bonded item" have to be "magical" if it is made from a special material, or is a Masterwork only (non-magical) item permitted? Is a "Replacement Bonded item" NOT on the "Always available" list, and thus have Fame Requirements, when it is constructed of otherwise "Always available" components?
??? sorry? My PC is a Divine Hunter Paladin, and Hallowed Necromancer - Which I feel is actually a very effective combination, and kind of unique (something I like in my PCs, I like them to be individuals rather than just another of Class XXX). I was looking for a small mounted archer/spell caster, so I constructed a very fitting background "in World" for my PCs background. Why do you feel "...your goal is probably the Necromancer + Paladin, for giggles,..." I'm sorry, "for giggles"? What? I intend to be playing this PC for months if not years - why would I do that "for giggles"? At this point I am sorry I posted this thread. Perhaps I should just scrap the character and go back to playing just another Alchemist.
So, it looks like I could get a Darkwood bow, or a Greenwood bow for 2PP, then spend 200 gp to make it my Bonded Item? Am I understanding that correctly? Why would I be paying for a replacement ritual if it's my first bonded item? (Not that it would be a... way does a replacement magic item need to be magical? Does this mean if a low level wizard looses his Bonded Item, they would need to get a magic item of some sort in order to get a new bonded item? Not just a Masterwork item, but a Magic one? Additionally, if the magic item is either "Always Available" or on a Chronicle then the wizard wouldn't need to have the fame right? It's available for purchase normally. SO, for example a Long Composite Bow (Strength 14), crafted from Darkwood, is always available, and +1 Enhancement is always available, so why would fame limits even enter into getting a "Long Composite Bow (Strength 14), crafted from Darkwood," - enchanted to +1 or not?
So, it looks like I could get a Darkwood bow, or a Greenwood bow for 2PP, then spend 200 gp to make it my Bonded Item? Am I understanding that correctly? Why would I be paying for a replacement ritual if it's my first bonded item? (Not that it would be a problem, I actually have the GP right now...).
Ok, bought a riding dog as a mount. That's little "m" mount, not a big "M" Mount... just a normal riding dog. I would like for it to be combat trained when I buy it. Yeah, I'm an archer (mounted) but I might end up on the sharp end of personal interactions with hostile creatures while still in the saddle. I am planning on using him/her as a means of getting around - you know, as a mount. It's combat trained (at least I think it is... isn't it?), so maybe it get's the following tricks... (from the PRD): Combat Training (DC 20): An animal trained to bear a rider into combat knows the tricks attack, come, defend, down, guard, and heel. Training an animal for combat riding takes 6 weeks. You may also "upgrade" an animal trained for riding to one trained for combat by spending 3 weeks and making a successful DC 20 Handle Animal check. The new general purpose and tricks completely replace the animal's previous purpose and any tricks it once knew. Many horses and riding dogs are trained in this way. so... no "bonus tricks" for a Animal Companion. now for my questions: Does a purchased riding dog in PFS come with the tricks listed above (attack, come, defend, down, guard, and heel.)? Can I replace/retrain one or more of these tricks (using the Handle Animal skill)? and if I do that, does the mount still count as "Combat Trained", or does it loose the ability to be ridden in combat? Thank you for your time...
...and if it makes the Will save it takes half damage... ??
Progressing on my Palamancer build, been working on "back-story" and am deciding on Race and Stats. Right now deciding between:
Traits - I'll be going with Magical Knack, and Irrepressible. 3rd level Feat will be Arcane Armor Training. Not sure about my 1st level one yet (or the Human Bonus). Archetypes: Thinking of going Divine Hunter Paladin, and/or maybe Hallowed Necromancer (from Horror Adventures). I think I'll start listing the build as this PC, so you can click on it to see his current write-up... |
