Do not abuse the FAQ system.
That wasn't my intention. Apologies. Won't happen again.
Search Posts
For the purposes of touch spells, I see the mechanics as delivering a charge that you are 'holding' within yourself to an enemy; a magus just happens to have an ability that lets him do it via a sword slash rather than a love pat. That 'charge' is there, and roughly equivalent, whether it comes from a wand or from your own innate casting ability. They could have certainly not used "casts a spell" in the rule. If they said "At 2nd level, a magus can deliver a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack." That would work with wands and items and stuff. I don't know whether they just didn't think of it, or if it was an intentional wording to limit how effective a magus can be using one of his primary abilities. One of the main balance considerations of a magus is how quickly they burn out when using up spells each round. Given the direction they took with the Spell Combat full-attack question, I would be surprised if they opened up Spellstrike with wands.
the problem is that you are very lax in reading "whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list," as "" I'm only reading the actual rule. Your 2nd version of that (marked in blue) would mean it does work with wands. in half of your interpretation and very strict in reading that same phrase as "whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” or has a held charge of a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list but that held spell has to have been cast by hand by the magus, not with a device,". The entire thing must be read strictly. It says casts a spell, so it means casts a spell. It says range of touch, so it means range of touch. I'll spell it out for you, again. Spellstrike (Su): "At 2nd level, whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list, he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack." First three words: "At 2nd level," 2nd level is when a magus gets the ability. Next sixteen words: "whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list," That's what has to happen in order to use the ability. If that doesn't happen, then the ability cannot be used. When a magus casts a spell, and that spell has a range of touch, and that spell is from the magus spell list.... something happens! Next seventeen words: "he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack." That's what happens. He can deliver the spell through a weapon with a melee attack. That only happens when the first part of the sentence is true. If you didn't cast the spell, or if the spell does not have a range of "touch", or if the spell is not from the magus spell list, then you can't deliver that spell through a weapon as part of a melee attack. When a magus casts shocking grasp, which has a range of touch, and is from the magus spell list, he can deliver that shocking grasp through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. When a magus casts lightning bolt, he is casting a spell, and it's from the magus spell list, but it doesn't have a range of touch, so he can not deliver that lightning bolt through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. When a magus who has a level of cleric casts cure light wounds, he is casting a spell, and it has a range of touch, but it's not from the magus spell list, so he can not deliver that cure light wounds through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. When a magus activates a wand of Frigid Touch, he is not casting a spell, so even though it has a range of touch, and is from the magus spell list, he can not deliver that Frigid Touch through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. Understand? Whenever you [do this], you can (do that). If you don't do this, then you can't do that. When a magus casts shocking grasp, which has a range of touch, and is from the magus spell list, he can deliver that shocking grasp through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. If he does not deliver the spell that turn, he holds the charge. He still cast the spell, it still had a range of touch, and it was from the magus spell list, so the rules say he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. He [did this], so he can (do that).
The FAQs themselves are hard to find too. The top right corner of every page has a "Help/FAQ" link.
So if a wand does not count as the caster casting a spell... ...for purposes of feats and special abilities. by RAW if the magus is not casting the spell, but is simply using a wand, then a magus could cast Shocking Grasp, hold the charge, and use a wand of Shocking Grasp without dissipating the charge from the spell he cast. If the FAQ is not specifically saying it is not casting a spell for purposes of feats and special abilities, but is making a general rule that using a wand is not casting a spell, then yes, that's correct.
And then you can't use spellstrike with any held charge as you aren't casting the spell. Spellstrike does not say "casting a spell" it says "casts a spell". If the ability only functioned while you are casting a spell, it wouldn't ever do anything. "At 2nd level, whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list, he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack." If a magus casts chill touch, which has a range of "touch" and is from the magus spell list, he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. So if he's holding the charge of that spell, he still cast it, it still had the range of touch, and it's still from the magus spell list, so he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack.
And what SKR say in the first part of the citation? "Basically, the spellstrike gives the magus more options when it comes to delivering touch spells;". Spellstrike does give the magus more options when it comes to delivering touch spells. But only touch spells that he cast from the magus spell list.
Does anyone know where mentioned answer is? It probably doesn't exist. I vaguely remember someone from Paizo saying that they prefer simple concise FAQ questions, but people FAQ things all the time, without context, or multiple things on the same topic, and those posts clog up their FAQ queue. So sometime someone will flag them answered just to get rid of them. (There was mention of creating a different flag, but I don't know if anything came of it) You could create a new thread, asking the question in a very concise simple way, and try to get FAQ flags on it. Jiggy had some success with this recently. "How does the Scorpion Whip work?" Is probably not something they can really answer in a FAQ format. I would say it should be phrased something like this: "When you use a scorpion whip as a whip, does it gain all of the normal features of a whip (Disarm, nonlethal, reach, trip), can it still damage creatures with armor, and does it benefit from feats or abilities that require a whip?"
I do really find it interesting that those arguing against my point say they'd allow it...as if they assume that it's within the scope of RAI. The reason I would allow it is not that I think it's RAI, it's that my players would have more fun with it that way. The same reason I use the 3.5 reach exception (Always 2nd diagonal!), it's not the RAW (No 2nd diagonal!), it's also not the RAI (Sometimes 2nd diagonal!), but everyone at my table, including the GM, has more fun using it.
It would be possible I guess if a bonus to touch AC (and only touch AC) existed. But it's not the case. Ghost Rager (Su): "While raging, the barbarian deals normal damage to incorporeal creatures even when using nonmagical weapons. She also gains a morale bonus to touch AC equal to her saving throw bonus from her superstition rage power."
I believe that the bastard sword was a weapon the writer intended to be usable with the overhand chop. Are you saying that Jason Nelson wanted to write the archetype to work with the bastard sword, but just inexplicably didn't? Or that he didn't know the bastard sword is a one-handed weapon? What makes you sure he was thinking of the bastard sword at all? Unless one of the devs gives an answer, it'll end up some of us thinking one way, and the rest thinking another... About RAW or RAI? RAW has been pretty well established, I think. As for RAI, generally the assumption is that the rules were intended to mean what they say. In order for that not to be the case, there should be some evidence that the intent doesn't match the rule. So what evidence is there that the bastard sword was supposed to be used as a two-handed weapon, rather than used two-handed like it says? Anyway, there's a FAQ post here if you want to find out. it won't change my game, or yours, I'd bet. If my players wanted to house rule the bastard sword as a two-handed weapon, I'd probably allow it.
I have a player that would like to play a bard without the rest of the party knowing. The characters or the players? Players is probably not going to happen. It's hard to keep secrets when the mechanics are open. Would the characters know the source of an ability like inspire courage when it is placed on them. Or would they know the source or have any automatic defenses that would activate from unknown spells and bard effects? A creature that successfully saves against a spell that has no obvious physical effects feels a hostile force or a tingle, but cannot deduce the exact nature of the attack. If the bard casts a spell, any character can attempt to identify it via Spellcraft. As for Bardic Performance, to be affected, the targets have to be able to either hear or see the bard. If the bard begins singing (or chanting or whatever you choose to fluff the audible components as), the party needs to be able to hear that in order to benefit. It's the same with visual components, they need to see him dancing or miming, or whatever it is he's doing. As to whether the characters will know why their morale increases and they are suddenly more competent when that guy starts preaching or whatever, that will have to be determined by the GM and the players.
The "Overcoming Damage Reduction" section does not actually explain how you overcome damage reduction. Damage Reduction: "The numerical part of a creature's damage reduction (or DR) is the amount of damage the creature ignores from normal attacks. Usually, a certain type of weapon can overcome this reduction (see Overcoming DR). This information is separated from the damage reduction number by a slash. For example, DR 5/magic means that a creature takes 5 less points of damage from all weapons that are not magic. If a dash follows the slash, then the damage reduction is effective against any attack that does not ignore damage reduction." You're looking for sentences 2 and 3. "Usually, a certain type of weapon can overcome this reduction (see Overcoming DR). This information is separated from the damage reduction number by a slash." So a magic weapon overcomes DR #/magic.
Also, from the bestiary: Damage Reduction (Ex or Su): "The entry indicates the amount of damage ignored (usually 5 to 15 points) and the type of weapon that negates the ability. Some monsters are vulnerable to piercing, bludgeoning, or slashing damage. Others are vulnerable to certain materials, such as adamantine, alchemical silver, or cold-forged iron. Attacks from weapons that are not of the correct type or made of the correct material have their damage reduced, although a high enhancement bonus can overcome some forms of damage reduction."
A monster that is not vulnerable to magic, but is vulnerable to bludgeoning, would not have that DR overcome by a magic non-bludgeoning weapon. (Which is a poor choice of words, since 'vulnerability' is a game defined term itself)
Fast Learner does not allow you to choose two alternate racial bonuses. At level 1, if you take a level in your favored class, and you have the Fast Learner feat, you get to choose one of: A) +1 HP and +1 skill rank
That's it. At level 2, if you take another level in your favored class, you get to choose one of: A) +1 HP and +1 skill rank
That's it. And so on. As for the fraction bonuses, here's how they work. Racial Favored Classes: "some of these alternate favored class benefits only add +1/2, +1/3, +1/4, or +1/6 to a roll (rather than +1) each time the benefit is selected; when applying this result to the die roll, round down (minimum 0). For example, a dwarf with rogue as his favored class adds +1/2 to his trap sense ability regarding stone traps each time he selects the alternate rogue favored class benefit; though this means the net effect is +0 after selecting it once (because +1/2 rounds down to +0), after 20 levels this benefit gives the dwarf a +10 bonus to his trap sense (in addition to the base value from being a 20th-level rogue)." So if you choose the Human racial favored class Magus bonus ("Add +1/4 point to the magus' arcane pool.") then you need to choose that bonus four times before you get an arcane pool point.
And the dev comment above was that they didn't put it in the 2h martial weapons area because they didn't want to list it twice...just like the lance isn't stuck in the 1h Weapons area because you can use it that way while mounted. The Covenant Man is not a Pathfinder developer. His post was not actually quoting a dev. He was just posting what he thought the reason for the classification was.
If you wield it in one hand, BOOM, it morphs to an exotic 1h weapon and is no longer eligible for Overhand Chop. The weapon does not morph. A lance not used in a charge is a spear by another name. The rules do not support this. If you use a Lance, and you don't charge, it does not lose 4 lbs, the reach special ability, gain a range increment, refund you 8 gp, and become a simple weapon. It also does not start to work with weapon focus (spear) or any other spear-specific effects. But we weren't talking about normal use, where it's a two handed weapon you can use overhand chop with. A lance and a spear are both two-handed weapons, so they both work with overhand chop, both during a charge and with a normal attack action. We were talking about using it while Charging with the SPirited Charge feat, and the guy wanting to use Overhand Chop at the same time. Those three things work fine together. Using a lance in a mounted charge is couching a lance, which uses one hand. It is the proper way to use the lance. The rules give you the option to use a lance in one hand while mounted. The rules also tell you that a lance deals double damage when used from the back of a charging mount. Those two things are not dependent on one another. To put it more clearly: You do not have to use a lance in one hand in order to use it from the back of a charging mount. A lance used in a charge is used in 1h, and not eligible for 2h stuff if you want the triple damage. See, this sounds like you're stating that as an actual rule. Is there a rule you can cite that prohibits using a lance in both hands while charging? If you're talking about a house rule, you should make that clear (and preferably take it to the appropriate forum).
Ok now what about with spells? For examplle scorching ray or vampiric touch. Are you asking if a +1 dagger will make you more likely to hit with a ray or touch spell? Not normally, no, because you're not attacking someone with the magic dagger, you're attacking them with a ray or with a touch. If you have some special ability, feat, item, or effect that specifically says so, then it'll be whatever it says.
But a held charge is a held charge of spell X, regardless of how you generated the charge. So either you can't deliver any held charge through a spellstrike or you can deliver any held charge of a spell on the magus spell list. Those are not the only options. Another option is that you can deliver a spell through a weapon as part of a melee attack if, and only if, that spell was cast by the magus, it had a range of touch, and it was from the magus spell list. Holding the charge doesn't change any of those things, so as long as those are true, you can deliver the spell with Spellstrike. Look at it this way: A wizard with the Evocation School power Intense Spells gets a bonus to evocation spells that deal hit point damage. If that wizard casts Shocking Grasp and touches someone, he would get his intense spells bonus damage. If that same wizard activates a wand of Shocking Grasp and touches someone, he would not get his bonus damage, because he didn't cast the spell. Neither of those situations changes if he held the charge for a few rounds before touching someone. Following SKR line of reasoning in the FAQ: "Basically, the spellstrike gives the magus more options when it comes to delivering touch spells; it’s not supposed to make it more difficult for the magus to use touch spells." Not being able to use Spellstrike with wands is not making it more difficult for a magus to use touch spells. Being able to use Spellstrike with spells you actually cast (as long as they have a range of touch, and come from the magus spell list) does give the magus more options when it comes to delivering touch spells. A magus can still use a wand just like everyone else, and deliver touches with it just like everyone else, he just can't use Spellstrike to deliver those touches, because he didn't cast the spell.
Where do you find the armor check penalty/AC/etc? for animal armor using items like Darkenwood, Angelskin, DarkLeaf Cloth, etc? Look under the type of armor you want to buy, not the material it's made from. (Then modify it based on the material, if appropriate) Just what type of armor is "wooden or mostly wooden?" Wooden armor?
It's not an exotic weapon...text trumps table. I linked the table upthread, so here's the text: Sword, Bastard: A bastard sword is about 4 feet in length, making it too large to use in one hand without special training; thus, it is an exotic weapon. As you can see, it is an exotic weapon. that does not make it 'always' an exotic weapon, and certainly not 'always a one-handed weapon'. While it can be used two-handed as a martial weapon, that does not mean it can be used as a two-handed weapon. It is always a one-handed weapon, when appropriately sized. It can be used for over hand chop. Only if it's a size larger than appropriate. You couch it in one hand, using your weight plus the mass of the horse to drive it home. That's why it gets the huge crit range and multiplier. A lance has a crit range of 20. Everyone knows how to charge with a lance, it's one of those 'unwritten rules' that people try to deviate from to minmax rules. We're discussing what the actual written rules are, not making up new ones about turning lances into spears and increasing the crit range on horses. If you are on foot, a lance is simply a spear of various size. It's not a spear, and it doesn't change size. Using a lance with Overhand Chop means you would not be using it like a lance on the charge. You would be using it like a spear. While Overhand Chop does work when charging, you don't have to charge to use the feat. A spear is another two-handed weapon, and can be used with Overhand Chop. It would do dmg, have the threat range, and crit modifier of a spear of the appropriate size. No, it would be treated like a lance, because it is one. Using Overhand Chop doesn't change the weapon into something else. If you want the extra goodies of being a lance, use it like a lance. Hitting someone with a lance is using it like a lance. Trying to redefine 'lance charge' to fit your justification for your build is not how the game works. Trying to make up new rules that frankly don't make any sense and trying to claim that they're actual rules is not how the forums work.
A character can use a bastard sword two-handed as a martial weapon.That's not an accidental fabrication. It's in the description of the weapon. What you just quoted there is not what you claimed earlier. In your post that Jiggy was replying to, you claimed you could wield the bastard sword as a two-handed martial weapon, which is not what the rule says. I think he was perhaps being generous in assuming the fabrication was accidental rather than deliberate. A bastard sword can be wielded, without EW proficiency, in two hands as long as the character has martial weapon proficiency. It can be wielded in two hands by anyone of appropriate size, regardless of proficiency. The character wielding the weapon, in that situation, isn't proficient in one-handed exotic weapons, they are proficient in two-handed martial weapons. Martial weapon proficiency applies to all martial weapons, not just one- or two-handed weapons. They are wielding the sword proficiently just as if it were a two-handed martial weapon. Wrong. They are wielding the sword two handed, as if it were a martial weapon. Which means if they're proficient with martial weapons, they don't take a -4 penalty on attack rolls with it. And if they're not proficient with martial weapons, they do take that penalty. Do I think that means the B-sword is now magically a two-handed weapon? No, I'll grant you that, but I do think it provides some interesting corner cases where that sword could qualify for something like overhand chop. In order to work the way you want, the rule would have to be changed to say "A character can use a bastard sword as a two-handed martial weapon."
Two Weapon Fighting. Use both for fun awesomeness + a spell. Spell combat is its own kind of full-round action, and is not a full attack action. Two-weapon fighting requires a full-attack. You can't use both.
I don't see anything saying that Fast Learner 'replaces' the favored class option (important terminology there since 'replaces' is very official). I read it as saying that instead of getting one favored class option, you get two, whether its the standard +1 hp and +1 skill rank or any other favored class option that you would be eligible for. Fast Learner: "When you gain a level in a favored class, you gain both +1 hit point and +1 skill rank instead of choosing either one or the other benefit or you can choose an alternate class reward." Fast Learner doesn't allow you to pick multiple alternate class rewards. You can either choose one alternate class reward, or you can choose to gain both 1 HP and 1 skill rank. FAQ post marked "Answered in the FAQ" (It hasn't been, yet)
So you don't think that the fact that a bastard sword can't be wielded one-handed at all without the EWP, but that it can be wielded proficiently as a two-handed martial weapon with MWP speaks to the weapon possibly having an unlisted classification as a two-handed martial weapon? You said "as a two-handed martial weapon" which is not what the rules state. The rules say "two-handed as a martial weapon" which is a different situation.
What if there aren't any somatic components? The ability isn't completely clear. Shielded Spell Combat functions like Spell Combat, but only when wielding his bonded shield. In addition, the Skirnir can use his shield hand to perform somatic components. I assume the intent is for that to mean your shield hand can be the free hand required for casting the spell. (I further assume that the shield hand can also manipulate material or focus components) I think a Skirnir should basically have two options: Free hand to cast and Shield as weapon, or shield hand to cast a different weapon in the other hand. As to whether you can use the latter, and also attack with the shield, the rules aren't clear. On one hand, it doesn't say you can't. On the other hand, it says you gain Spell Combat, but modified, and since it doesn't say that it modifies the hand requirements, it doesn't. Which means you can't attack with the shield if you use that hand to cast. I think this build would be pretty cool. What's the benefit to using both weapons? If the earthbreaker is better, why not make all your attacks with it? Or, if the klar is better (since you have been enchanting it at half price since level 5, and qualify for more feats with it), why not ditch the earthbreaker and just use the shield?
A Skirnir Magus can, at level 8, use Spell Combat while wielding a shield, though they lose the AC bonus to shield provides. He only loses the AC bonus if he uses his shield hand to perform somatic components. Can a Skirnir Magus with the Thunder and Fang feat use Spell Combat, and attack with both the earth breaker and klar, all in the same turn? Assuming the magus was able to choose the klar as his bonded object, then he can use spell combat and use the klar-hand to perform somatic components. If he does so, he loses the klar's bonus to AC. Thunder and Fang allows you to retain the shield bonus your klar grants to your Armor Class even when you use it to attack. You're not losing the AC bonus because of attacking, you're losing it because you're using that hand to perform somatic components.
It work on both. What does? And how? If I take Spell focus Evocation and I am a MT it work for both Arcance and Divine list. That's because Spell Focus works on spells from the school of magic you select. It works on Sound Burst as well as Fireball because they're both evocation spells. If take Combat Casting and I am MT it work for both list. That's because Combat Casting works when casting on the defensive or while grappled. It works on cleric spells cast defensively just like wizard spells cast defensively.
If you're trying to say you get two extra channels for each channel 'pool' then you're incorrect, since Extra Channel says "You can channel energy two additional times per day." Also, even if Extra Channel did grant you an extra two channels per 'pool' it only grants two, not three. The easy fix is let the Oralce of life levels stack with levels of Cleric. What is it you're fixing? And are you aware that would directly contradict the FAQ?
You can still wield a Bastard Sword in one hand even if you have no proficiency with it, you'll just take a -4 non-proficiency penalty doing so. While normally that would be true, the first sentence is not simply fluff, it's a rule. "A bastard sword is about 4 feet in length, making it too large to use in one hand without special training; thus, it is an exotic weapon." That means that without special training (EWP), it cannot be used in one hand. This is verified as intent as well here. There are other weapons that use proficiency as a gateway to allow special use beyond just the -4 penalty.
A) Wielding a two-handed weapon. B) Wielding a weapon as a two-handed weapon. C) Wielding a weapon two-handed. Though similar in wording, those three are not the same. A) refers to the type of weapon. An appropriately sized greataxe is a two-handed weapon. B) refers to what type of weapon you wield the weapon as. A human wielding a large longsword is wielding it as a two-handed weapon. C) refers to how you wield it. You can wield a dagger two-handed. Overhand Chop (Ex) specifies "with a two-handed weapon" which is A). It's been shown that B counts as A. A human with a greataxe, and another human with a large longsword, could both benefit from Overhand Chop. A human with a dagger, even wielded in two hands, cannot. A bastard sword is a one-handed weapon. "A character can use a bastard sword two-handed as a martial weapon." Using it two-handed is C), which does not qualify for Overhand Chop. The argument that is not being made is that, when a character is unable to use a bastard sword with one hand, but can use it with two hands, it should be considered to be wielded as a two-handed weapon, rather than as the rules say wielded two-handed. There's some support for this maybe being the intent. For example, the intent is that without EWP, a character simply cannot wield a bastard sword in one hand. Not even by taking the -4 non-proficiency penalty. It just cannot be done. This is unusual, in that every other weapon in the game can be wielded without any proficiency at all. A wizard can use a Temple sword just by taking a -4 penalty. A wizard can use a bastard sword two-handed by taking a -4 penalty. But that wizard cannot use it one-handed. So people could very well argue that the intent is that you can use the bastard sword as a two-handed weapon, that's not what the rules say. If anyone wants to create a FAQ post or thread for this, try to use a simple direct question in order to have a better chance of being answered. (Something like "Can a bastard sword be used as a two-handed weapon, in order to benefit from feats or abilities which require a two-handed weapon?")
Technically, the bastard sword is a one handed weapon that can be used as a two handed weapon if you don't have the exotic weapon prof. Being used two-handed is not the same as being used as a two-handed weapon.
Technically, the bastard sword is a two handed weapon you can take an Exotic Weapon prof to wield with one hand. Table: Weapons: Exotic Weapons - One-Handed Melee Weapons - Sword, bastard Note you still have to wield it with two hands to get the bonus. Overhand Chop (Ex): "At 3rd level, when a two-handed fighter makes a single attack (with the attack action or a charge) with a two-handed weapon, he adds double his Strength bonus on damage rolls. This ability replaces armor training 1."
There are two recent FAQ request threads that may all be relevant here.
It's the same amount of space to put "as a" before "two-handed" as after. Also, that means a bastard sword would be changing size from a small to a medium object based on who is holding it.
Right, which means that technically the character is wielding a one-handed exotic weapon. Correct, the bastard sword is a one-handed exotic weapon. You can wield it with two hands, just like every other one-handed weapon. This doesn't change it into a two-handed weapon. Some people, who are not as well trained, can only wield it with two hands. This doesn't change it into a two-handed weapon. There's a significant difference between
One changes how you use it, the other changes the weapon. If a character can wield a sword proficiently in two hands, that means it is, at least in that character's hands, a two-handed martial weapon. A character can wield a dagger in two hands, but that doesn't mean it's a two-handed weapon.
i have a multi-class healer (Oracle/Cleric). if i take extra channel does it applie to both Extra Channel: "You can channel energy two additional times per day." or can i take it twice and apply it once to each? Feat Descriptions: "If a character has the same feat more than once, its benefits do not stack unless indicated otherwise in the description." also can i use feats like channel revival and quicken channel buy sacrificing channels from opposite classes, why/why not? Quick Channel: "You may channel energy as a move action by spending 2 daily uses of that ability." "that ability" is specific to the ability you are using. So if you spend two uses of oracle channel, then that allows you to use your oracle channel energy as a move action. Channeled Revival: "As a full-round action that provokes attacks of opportunity, you can expend three uses of your channel energy class feature to restore a dead creature to life as if you had cast the breath of life spell (Core Rulebook 251)." That one is less specific, so I would say that as long as both of your channels are 6d6 positive energy, you could spend any combination of them to use channeled revival. Most of these are assuming your GM rules that the Channel (Su) revelation is considered to qualify as the channel energy class feature. (Since the actual class feature is "Revelation")
the language that says two-handed as a martial weapon (which I interpret to mean it then is categorized as a "two-handed martial weapon") A character can use a scimitar two-handed as a martial weapon. This does not mean a scimitar is a two-handed weapon. The type of weapon it is (which determines the size of the object, among other things) does not change. The only thing that changes is how you use it.
As the thread title says do you need to touch a magic item to identify it using spellcraft? Spellcraft: "Attempting to ascertain the properties of a magic item takes 3 rounds per item to be identified and you must be able to thoroughly examine the object." Generally, I would assume 'thoroughly examining an object' would involve handling it and moving it around, but depending on the object and the situation, I can see circumstances where touching would not be required.
Converting the free touch attack into a melee attack is a modification. Using the critical threat range of a weapon is a modification.The former is a modification to the magus's ability to cast spells, not to the spell itself. The attack can only take place after the spell has been cast. It's a direct result of having cast the spell. Or the second sentence in the reply is to clarify the scope of what Sean meant by "no" In that case, a comma would have been better than a period. Going in another direction, I would argue that if you cannot use wands in conjunction with spellstrike because it says it can only be used when "casting a spell", then spells that have iterative charges could not be delivered via a weapon. Spellstrike does not say "casting a spell" it says "casts a spell". If the ability only functioned while you are casting a spell, it wouldn't ever do anything. "At 2nd level, whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list, he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack." If a magus casts chill touch, which has a range of "touch" and is from the magus spell list, he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. So if he's holding the charge of that spell, he still cast it, it still had the range of touch, and it's still from the magus spell list, so he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack.
Grab allows Eidolons to make a grapple attempt on every attack (as long as its a claw) if the grapple roll succeeds on each attack it could nearly triple the number of attacks you make. A sneaky GM could get around this by deciding that the free combat maneuver check granted by Grab is not a grapple check. (Even though it results in the grappled condition) Since it's not specifically a grapple check, but a generic combat maneuver check, rake wouldn't trigger when you use grab, only when you successfully maintain the grapple (or initiate one regularly without grab). Grab (Ex): "Whenever the eidolon makes a successful attack of the selected type, it can attempt a free combat maneuver check. If successful, the eidolon grapples the target." Rake (Ex): "The eidolon receives these additional attacks each time it succeeds on a grapple check against the target."
Draconic bloodline eventually gets energy damage on it's claws. Ah, so it does. At level 11 though, so not applicable to the OP. I guess 'flavor-wise' it could be considered negative energy which makes sense since it's a necromancy spell even if it doesn't specifically say so. "Each touch channels negative energy that deals 1d6 points of damage." The damage is coming from negative energy, even though it's not actually negative energy damage. I think he's adding an extra d6 for the damage form a claw attack with the damage from chill touch with the damage from the frost enchant on an amulet of mighty fists. But in order for all three to deal damage at the same time, you would have to use a normal attack and not a touch attack Right, he said "delivered through a claw attack" so normal AC, not touch. On hit, he would deal
Which is three d6's, but is not an "additional" 3d6, nor is most of it cold damage.
The part of the sentence you cut out directly modifies the part you kept. FAQ: Does using a potion, scroll, staff, or wand count as "casting a spell" for purposes of feats and special abilities like Augment Summoning, Spell Focus, an evoker's ability to do extra damage with evocation spells, bloodline abilities, and so on? "No. Unless they specifically state otherwise, feats and abilities that modify spells you cast only affect actual spellcasting, not using magic items that emulate spellcasting or work like spellcasting. —Sean K Reynolds, 09/01/10" Potions, scrolls, and staves are irrelevant to the question, so I removed that part. A list of examples is also not relevant to the question, so I also removed that part, too. The second sentence in the reply is an addition to the answer to the question. I removed it to make it more clear that the "No." was a direct response to the question. This makes it clear that the answer does not depend on the special ability modifying a spell.
a Dervish of Dawn using the spell Shadowbard would get absolutely no benefit from Inspire Courage, Inspire Heroics or Inspire Greatness (or Dirge of Doom since they don't get that performance), nor would any member of their party, making the spell essentially useless to them? Assuming you don't have access to a normal (non-battle dance) version of those abilities, I think so. (Battle Dance doesn't actually say it replaces bardic performance, it just says you gain the inspire courage, inspire greatness, and inspire heroics bardic performance types as battle dances, so someone could argue that you still gain the normal versions of those performances as well) Exquisite Accompaniment does or does not count as a performance coming from you (regardless of whether or not it uses up your performance rounds)? Exquisite Accompaniment is a spell. For the duration of that spell, you do not have to expend rounds of bardic performance from your daily allotment to maintain an effect. So if you're using inspire courage, and then you cast Exquisite Accompaniment, you can continue to maintain the inspire courage effect without using up more rounds of bardic performance until the spell ends.
As a GM, I would cackle with great delight if a player cast sands of time on a <bad thing> they were fighting. Sands of Time: "The target immediately takes the age penalties to Strength, Dexterity, and Constitution for its new age category, but does not gain the bonuses for that category."
If a Troll, or "whatever" claws itself what type of damage does it need to do to get rid of the slime? It says "dealing damage to the victim as well" but never says how much. I assume if it claws itself, it deals claw damage. It doesn't specify how much damage (if any) must be dealt to the slime (and thus also the creature) so you're going to have to make something up. Can we use a 0-Level spell and do 1 point of damage and get rid of the slime. If the spell deals cold or fire damage, sure. What about after the first round, does the victim have any options? After the first round it no longer has the option to scrape off the slime (taking no damage, but destroying the scraping device). Other than that, it's the same.
Why would it? Chill Touch deals 1d6 points of damage. (Not cold damage) The Frost weapon enchantment deals an extra 1d6 points of cold damage on a successful hit. I don't see anything in the Draconic bloodline that would add an extra 2d6 (or 1d6 and convert the damage from chill touch to cold).
Actually, it says that they do not count as 'casting a spell' for feats and abilities that modify the spell. The question is "Does using a... wand count as "casting a spell" for purposes of feats and special abilities...?" The answer is "No." I would argue that spellstrike does not modify the spell in any way. Converting the free touch attack into a melee attack is a modification. Using the critical threat range of a weapon is a modification.
Does the performance used by the Shadowbard spell keep you from being able to use a performance ability yourself I don't see why it would. could it be used to activate both Inspire Heroics and Inspire Courage at once? If you have access to Inspire Heroics, then you could have the shadowbard begin that bardic performance when it comes into being (or switch to that bardic performance by using a move action to direct it). You could also use your own Inspire Courage if you wanted. Does the Shadowbard performance behave as if it had originated from you - i.e. the doubling effect of the Dervish's battle dance? Since Battle Dance only provides benefit to the dervish dancer, I think a shadowbard doing that would provide benefit only to the shadowbard. (The flavor of that is goofy anyway, since the shadowbard is a singer, not a dancer) Same question for Exquisite Accompaniment. Exquisite Accompaniment: "The instrument plays as you direct, and as long as it plays, you do not have to expend rounds of bardic performance from your daily allotment to maintain an effect." The shadowbard doesn't use up any of your rounds of bardic performance, so I'm not sure how Exquisite Accompaniment could have any effect on it at all.
Actually you can use spellstrike to deliver a held charge, regardless of the held charge origin. You simply don't get a extra attack as it work with held charges, not when you cast a spell using a wand. Are you trying to say that activating a wand of a touch spell doesn't grant a free melee touch attack? Or are you trying to say that a magus can't use Spellstrike with the free melee touch attack granted by a touch spell he cast? Either of those would be incorrect. As for Spellstrike working with a wand: Spellstrike (Su): "At 2nd level, whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list, he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack." Spellstrike specifically states it only works when the magus casts a spell. FAQ: Does using a potion, scroll, staff, or wand count as "casting a spell" for purposes of feats and special abilities like Augment Summoning, Spell Focus, an evoker's ability to do extra damage with evocation spells, bloodline abilities, and so on? "No. Unless they specifically state otherwise, feats and abilities that modify spells you cast only affect actual spellcasting, not using magic items that emulate spellcasting or work like spellcasting. —Sean K Reynolds, 09/01/10" The FAQ specifically states that activating a wand does not count as "casting a spell" for purposes of special abilities. Spellstrike is a special ability. Therefore, activating a wand does not count as casting a spell for the purpose of Spellstrike, and thus cannot be used with Spellstrike. Other than deploying the spell with a melee weapon attack instead of a melee touch attack, the magus spellstrike ability doesn’t change the normal rules for using touch spells in combat (Core Rulebook 185). I'm not changing the normal rules for using touch spells. If you use that text to justify using Spellstrike when you didn't cast a spell, you could equally use it to justify using Spellstrike when you cast a spell that doesn't have a range of touch. Casting the spell is a requirement to use Spellstrike. Just to be even more clear: the rules don't say that if you cast a spell from a wand you have to use the wand to deliver the touch attack. I don't see how that's relevant. Was anyone in this thread talking about using the wand to deliver the spell?
I don't have it handy, but the Biped (hands) section of the chart (from Animal Archive) might say they can use those things. The PFS FAQ used to say something like this: The only exception to this would be an brownie, faerie dragon, imp, lyrakien azata, or quasit familiar gained with the Improved Familiar feat. One could reasonably face either of these wielding a wand or wearing a circlet of persuasion in combat, and after investing a feat to gain their service, they are not limited by the same restrictions as normal bonded creatures like animals (whether treated like animals or magical beasts and regardless of Int scores). And I (finally) found this post by Mike Brock, who unhelpfully left any sort of key words out of his post that would have made the search much easier: Yes it can use a wand. It uses its master's UMD. I will get it added to the FAQ. Thanks for bringing it to my attention. Which is in response to a question about the faerie dragon.
if you use a wand to cast shocking grasp the only way to deliver this is via direct touch Holding the Charge actually says "when you cast the spell" which could mean that if you activate a wand, since you didn't cast the spell, you can't hold the charge (and thus, can't deliver the spell with an unarmed strike or natural weapon). However, even the main Touch Spells in Combat section says "To use these spells, you cast the spell and then touch the subject." This could be interpreted to simply be the rules being written with the assumption of normalcy, in that most of the time you're casting a spell, rather than activating a magic item. One could argue then that the same assumption could be made with Spellstrike, and the only two important requirements are the range and spell list. On the other hand, you could say that the touch spells in combat section is not a feat or special ability, and thus the FAQ entry was not referring to it, and as such, activating a wand could be considered casting a spell for those purposes. I think you'll find many (many!) more GMs who would let you hold the charge from a wand than those who would let you use Spellstrike with a wand.
|