Just want confirm that a staff magus can’t use spinning staff to recharge his spellstrike if there’s no 2nd target? Kind of sucks cos often by the time it reaches the time to recharge spellstrike, it’s down to the last boss. So it’s choosing between strike or spending one action to recharge.
What if I strike an ally but intentionally miss? Lol.
Just want confirm that a staff magus can’t use spinning staff to recharge his spellstrike if there’s no 2nd target?
Why would you think it works that way?
The text states that you recharge your Spellstrike when you cast a conflux spell.
You also recharge your Spellstrike when you cast a conflux spell that takes at least 1 action to cast...
I don't see any wording suggesting that the outcome of that casting is relevant to the recharge.
Is there a different part of the text that you are citing?
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Why would you think it works that way?
The text states that you recharge your Spellstrike when you cast a conflux spell.
It's common in some combat systems to forbid using an ability if you don't have all of the targets for it. In that mindset the spell would have to specify "attacking up to two foes", because just saying "attacking two foes" creates an assumption that you need two foes to even cast the spell.
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It's common in some combat systems to forbid using an ability if you don't have all of the targets for it. In that mindset the spell would have to specify "attacking up to two foes", because just saying "attacking two foes" creates an assumption that you need two foes to even cast the spell.Why would you think it works that way?
The text states that you recharge your Spellstrike when you cast a conflux spell.
Oh, I see.
In this case, though, I'll note that Spinning Staff doesn't actually have any targets, and the one requirement for casting the spell is that "You're wielding a staff." So even if the rules that you described applied in PF2 (and from the rules for targeting they don't seem to), there would be no problem with casting this spell and then only striking one creature (or even striking no creatures).
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Edit: To expand on my point regarding the rules for Targets.
If you choose a target that isn’t valid, such as if you thought a vampire was a living creature and targeted it with a spell that can target only living creatures, your spell fails to target that creature. If a creature starts out as a valid target but ceases to be one during a spell’s duration, the spell typically ends, but the GM might decide otherwise in certain situations. Some spells restrict you to willing targets. A player can declare their character a willing or unwilling target at any time, regardless of turn order or their character’s condition (such as when a character is paralyzed, unconscious, or even dead).
So we can see that it is possible to cast a spell even when there is no valid target available for it, and the standard result is simply that the spell simply ends.
Hey, thanks for the references! I was looking in particular for something more RAW as this is for a PFS character. So I was concerned if there are no actual valid targets, can a spell still be cast. So I think that reference on Targets help. I mean, if it's strictly read, it talks about choosing a target that isn't valid, not about having no targets at all. But I think the intent of the ruling should be clear.