I am just wondering, because it seems cheezy to be able to buy a wand perfectly new (for example 2000gp) -- and when it is down to 1 charge left be able to sell it for half it's price (1k) even when it only has one use left? Who would buy it?
It would seem to make more sense that each charge would be worth 40gp... but I can't find anything in the rules that substantiate this -- maybe I missed them? or is this really the rules as intended?
Thanks so much if you can chime in!
-V
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Yes, they are reduced in price accordingly. The relevent text can be found near the beginning of the magic items chapter.
Charges, Doses, and Multiple Uses
Many items, particularly wands and staves, are limited in power by the number of charges they hold. Normally, charged items have 50 charges at most (10 for staves). If such an item is found as a random part of a treasure, roll d% and divide by 2 to determine the number of charges left (round down, minimum 1). If the item has a maximum number of charges other than 50, roll randomly to determine how many charges are left.Prices listed are always for fully charged items. (When an item is created, it is fully charged.) For an item that's worthless when its charges run out (which is the case for almost all charged items), the value of the partially used item is proportional to the number of charges left. For an item that has usefulness in addition to its charges, only part of the item's value is based on the number of charges left.
Thank you!!! Don't know how I missed it!