| Sentack |
Okay, so 3 quick questions. 2 of which, I might already have the answer, I just need to confirm.
1) Reach Weapons & Flanking.
If your character has a Reach weapon, and you're trying to flank with another target, are you required to be right next to the target (i.e. within 5 feet) or can you flank from 10 feet away, as long as the 'line you draw' between the two squares somewhat conforms to the normal flanking rules? The example shows a Large creature with reach but Reach weapons are treated 'differently'. So I'm not so sure.
2) Charging, Readying a Brace weapon and AoO.
Okay so this one sounds like it's lightly debated but here we go. You're braced with a reach weapon, with a readied action to attack the first creature that charges you. Your Long Spear has reach. They charge. You get your Readied action. But then they complete the charge and thus move out of a threatened square. Do you also get an AoO? I would figure not but the rules aren't 100% clear about this.
3) Casting a Cone Spell, but trying to hold it.
A wizard wants to cast Color Spray. But he wants to hit with an optimal number of targets. The most optimal location is within a move action but is a threatened square. Can they 1) Cast the spell, 2) Hold the spell, 3) Move into optimal position, 3) Release the spell, effecting a cone area.
Is this possible? Or does the spell have to be released on completion of the standard action casting time. I read with "Touch" Spells, you gain a free swift action on the same around the spell is cast to 'touch' a target with a armed attack, and thus my actions above would work with that kind of spell, but what about a Cone or any other spell like that?
Josh M Foster
Developer
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1) Distance isn't the factor, just melee threat. A creature that threatens 10ft away can certainly flank from that distance.
2) Yes. You get both the readied action, and if they keep going, they leave themselves open for another hit, and thus you get your AoO. Attacking does not affect your ability to make an AoO.
3)No, only touch spells can be held. He can move and ready an action to cast, but not hold the charge.
| Sentack |
Answer #1 doesn't shock me, I think I was getting this confused with something else at one point. Maybe the difference between reach attacks and reach weapons had me all befuddled.
Answer #3 doesn't shock me, because I think touch spells are the exception to the rule in this case. Okay, that's fine.
Answer #2 does shock me, because I got the impression that it wasn't intended that you would get that 'double dip' when you ready like this. It also doesn't exactly fit the flavor of what's happening when you're bracing for a charge but, I see that in a rules context, you can clearly read it that way.
Still, I'm slightly surprised that's the case.
StabbittyDoom
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Answer #1 doesn't shock me, I think I was getting this confused with something else at one point. Maybe the difference between reach attacks and reach weapons had me all befuddled.
Answer #3 doesn't shock me, because I think touch spells are the exception to the rule in this case. Okay, that's fine.
Answer #2 does shock me, because I got the impression that it wasn't intended that you would get that 'double dip' when you ready like this. It also doesn't exactly fit the flavor of what's happening when you're bracing for a charge but, I see that in a rules context, you can clearly read it that way.
Still, I'm slightly surprised that's the case.
I view #2 as being one of those "He impaled himself on my spear, but didn't stop?! Push harder/twist!" type of things. More like double-counting one attack than really doing two attacks. This is just a flavor thing, though. It's still (rules-wise) two separate attacks.
| Grick |
Answer #2 does shock me, because I got the impression that it wasn't intended that you would get that 'double dip' when you ready like this.
If it helps, think of it without the brace weapon and charge aspect.
I ready an action to attack any enemy in reach.
An enemy walks up to me and enters my reach.
My readied action is triggered, and I get to attack him.
The enemy then leaves a threatened square, provoking an attack of opportunity.
Brace is the same thing, you're just severely limiting yourself in exchange for more damage.
| Sentack |
If it helps, think of it without the brace weapon and charge aspect.
I ready an action to attack any enemy in reach.
An enemy walks up to me and enters my reach.
My readied action is triggered, and I get to attack him.
The enemy then leaves a threatened square, provoking an attack of opportunity.
Brace is the same thing, you're just severely limiting yourself in exchange for more damage.
I understand the sequence of events that work from a mechanical sense, it's just I would have figured that once you've taken your readied action, the monster would get to complete the 'charge' action, and then the AoO would be lost since you would not get to double dip on one monster action. Now if someone was standing next to you with a reach weapon, sure, I can see it work for them. But for the guy who's performing the Brace, I would figure it wouldn't make complete sense for them.
Still, Reading an Action is intended to be a unique condition and such an attack won't happen that often. So this issue isn't a major one.
| call_of_dagon |
Seems that I´ve a topic related question here:
When someone charges you that has the mounted combat>ride by attack>spirited charge feat chain, it seems to me that both, rider and mount don´t get an attack of opportunity when riding by (and thus leaving the threatened area). Correct?
Does this also affect an opponent who whas readied his action vs this kind of charge and thus this opponent just gets one attack when the rider enters his threatened area but gets none when the rider is leaving?
greetz
call_of_dagon
| Grick |
When someone charges you that has the mounted combat>ride by attack>spirited charge feat chain, it seems to me that both, rider and mount don´t get an attack of opportunity when riding by (and thus leaving the threatened area). Correct?
Ride-by-Attack: "You and your mount do not provoke an attack of opportunity from the opponent that you attack."
Does this also affect an opponent who whas readied his action vs this kind of charge and thus this opponent just gets one attack when the rider enters his threatened area but gets none when the rider is leaving?
The readied action would still activate when the mounted charger gets in range. The mounted charger would not provoke from the person he is charging.
Readied action and attacks of opportunity are unrelated.
| call_of_dagon |
Thx for the answer!
Another question:
Bracing vs. a charge (with a readied action) - is that only possible with weapons that have the brace description or with every weapon available?
Readying a Weapon against a Charge
You can ready weapons with the brace feature, setting them to receive charges. A readied weapon of this type deals double damage if you score a hit with it against a charging character.
Or grants a weapon with the brace description "just" more damage?
| Bascaria |
Thx for the answer!
Another question:
Bracing vs. a charge (with a readied action) - is that only possible with weapons that have the brace description or with every weapon available?
Readying a Weapon against a Charge
You can ready weapons with the brace feature, setting them to receive charges. A readied weapon of this type deals double damage if you score a hit with it against a charging character.Or grants a weapon with the brace description "just" more damage?
Anyone can ready an action to attack the first person to charge them. You can do that with any weapon, just as you can ready any other attack action with any weapon.
The brace feature specifically allows you to automatically deal double damage if that readied attack versus a charger hits.
| call_of_dagon |
If I ready an action vs. an melee attack - do I have to distinguish between I ready vs 1) a charge & melee attack or 2)vs a "normal" move & melee attack?
I mean: Do I have to explicitly say that I ready vs. a charge or is the mode of my enemie´s movement to my char irrelevant when readying?
Since I´m going to play a mounted cavalier it´s very interesting to keep an eye to this combat mechanics...thx in advance,
call_of_dagon
| Grick |
If I ready an action vs. an melee attack - do I have to distinguish between I ready vs 1) a charge & melee attack or 2)vs a "normal" move & melee attack?
Brace: If you use a readied action to set a brace weapon against a charge, you deal double damage on a successful hit against a charging character (see Combat).
Readying a Weapon against a Charge: You can ready weapons with the brace feature, setting them to receive charges. A readied weapon of this type deals double damage if you score a hit with it against a charging character.
As written, I would say you have to specifically ready to receive a charge in order to get double damage from the Brace feature. This means if the opponent did not charge, but just moved up into range, your readied action would not trigger.
Also, this kind of sucks, and I've never seen anyone brace against a charge, so maybe some DM leniency wouldn't hurt.
| call_of_dagon |
Also, this kind of sucks, and I've never seen anyone brace against a charge, so maybe some DM leniency wouldn't hurt.
That´s exactly what I think: The charger can easily anticipate that the opponent is readying a hit vs. a charge and thus could choose not to charge but take a move action. As a consequence the readied action wouldn´t trigger.
As a DM I also wouldn´t distinguish between charging/normal movement BUT I´ve question concerning the following scenario:
Player A is readying a Std. action if Player B comes (move action) to him to attack in Melee.
If Player B attacks Player B in melee - does Player A get to attack B?
Because without a readied action player A wouldn´t get an attack if B just moves to him and attacks in melee.
greetz
call_of_dagon
| Grick |
That´s exactly what I think: The charger can easily anticipate that the opponent is readying a hit vs. a charge and thus could choose not to charge but take a move action. As a consequence the readied action wouldn´t trigger.
I wouldn't screw the player quite so much, unless the charging foe is extremely intelligent and a master of combat styles or something.
Player A is readying a Std. action if Player B comes (move action) to him to attack in Melee.If Player B attacks Player B in melee - does Player A get to attack B?
Because without a readied action player A wouldn´t get an attack if B just moves to him and attacks in melee.
Assuming you mean B attacks A.
A has a readied action to attack B if he gets in range.
B gets in range.
A's readied action is triggered, and he smacks B.
B then finishes his turn.
If A's readied action said specifically "If B uses a move action to get in range and attack me..." and then B was teleported into range, the ready wouldn't go off. But then, I would rephrase the Ready to be less specific.
Meaning, my player says "I want to ready to hit anything that moves!" I'll confirm his action by saying "Ok, you ready a standard action to attack any enemy that comes within your range?" (This has saved many familiars and mounts)
| call_of_dagon |
Assuming you mean B attacks A.A has a readied action to attack B if he gets in range.
B gets in range.
A's readied action is triggered, and he smacks B.
B then finishes his turn.
Interesting...
So when A readies vs. B he will get an attack he wouldn´t have got "normally". I guess that´s fair in some way because A can´t make a full attack action...
If A's readied action said specifically "If B uses a move action to get in range and attack me..." and then B was teleported into range, the ready wouldn't go off. But then, I would rephrase the Ready to be less specific.
Yeah, but as a DM I´ll do it same way for the players´opponents ;)
Meaning, my player says "I want to ready to hit anything that moves!" I'll confirm his action by saying "Ok, you ready a standard action to attack any enemy that comes within your range?"
Can you please elaborate this? Do you mean he HAS TO attack whatever comes into his range? Or can he choose not to take his triggered action if this case of an enemy arriving in his threatened area occurs (and thus not taking any action that round)?
(This has saved many familiars and mounts).
This would be the point of defining "enemy". There surely will be a discussion about a knight´s mount being count as an enemy (especially if mount and rider can be seen as a "union")
| Grick |
So when A readies vs. B he will get an attack he wouldn´t have got "normally". I guess that´s fair in some way because A can´t make a full attack action...
It's the same standard action he could have taken earlier. If the ready is not triggered, he loses that standard action.
Can you please elaborate this? Do you mean he HAS TO attack whatever comes into his range? Or can he choose not to take his triggered action if this case of an enemy arriving in his threatened area occurs (and thus not taking any action that round)?
No, you can choose not to.
Ready: "Then, anytime before your next action, you may take the readied action in response to that condition."
I was just trying to highlight the importance of precise speech. I'll usually try to confirm my players actions, and re-word them in favor of the player if possible. For instance, changing "Move action" to "come in range" because there are ways to get in range without taking a move action. (Charge, teleport, 5' step, etc.)
for example, "Ready to hit the first thing that moves" and then a friendly moves, he chooses not to trigger, and then he's lost his action. Whereas "Attack the first enemy in range" works out much better. Then again, I suspect most DMs don't get that into it and just roll with whatever the players intent was.