What happens when a metamagic-like wand explodes?

[Lupbert98]

What happens when you overcharge a wand of widening, and the wand is destroyed? This question is intended to be for other metamagic-like wands too, but I wanted to pick an example.

So, I cast a spell I want widened. Let's say it's burning hands:
https://2e.aonprd.com/Spells.aspx?ID=30

So, I cast the spell, which consumes a spell-slot, then I activate the wand of widening, which has already been used once that day:
https://2e.aonprd.com/Equipment.aspx?ID=373

Note that I've already cast the spell, and consumed the slot, because the activation requirement for the wand is: "Cast a Spell"

So, I roll my DC10 check, since I'm overcharging on my second use. It fails (see overcharging):
https://2e.aonprd.com/Rules.aspx?ID=756

The wand is destroyed, and the result of the overcharge failing the check is "no spell is cast."

Huh? This makes no sense to me. It does not say, "the spell fails." It does not say, "the spell has no effect." It does not say the spell is disrupted:
https://2e.aonprd.com/Rules.aspx?ID=394

It says the spell isn't cast. Casting the spell is what uses the actions, and the slot:
"You cast a spell you have prepared or in your repertoire. Casting a Spell is a special activity that takes a variable number of actions depending on the spell, as listed in each spell's stat block. As soon as the spellcasting actions are complete, the spell effect occurs."

So, the wand is destroyed, and no spell is cast. I believe this means that your action cost, slot cost, and component cost are all refunded to you, since the act of casting is what consumes those, and no spell is cast? I think it basically rewinds time to when you were about to cast the spell, and now you're holding a destroyed wand? Or maybe, your wand is destroyed so early into the casting process that you don't actually consume any actions, spell-slots, or materials?

Normally I'd say the wording means that no spell is cast by the wand, but the triggering spell has already finished. This makes even less sense to me for a wand of widening.

Would anyone else like to try to make sense of this?

[Baarogue]

The result of overcharge failing the check is that the wand is destroyed after use. The spell is still cast and widened by the wand. The check to break or destroy it occurs afterwards.

emphasis mine wrote:

Cast the Spell again, then roll a DC 10 flat check. On a success, the wand is broken. On a failure, the wand is destroyed.

What leads to "and no spell is cast" is the next sentence, which in full is, "If anyone tries to overcharge a wand when it's already been overcharged that day, the wand is automatically destroyed (even if it had been repaired) and no spell is cast."

>tries to overcharge a wand when it's already been overcharged that day
So the spell hasn't been cast yet in that situation. It occurs when they try to activate the wand when it's already been overcharged that day

Also, minor procedural correction, not that it matters much but I'm nitpicky about certain details. The act of activating the wand IS casting the spell with the specified increased action cost. You don't cast the spell and then activate the wand as you say in your step 2: "So, I cast the spell, which consumes a spell-slot, then I activate the wand of widening:" This is important because, as I mentioned above, when you try to activate the wand that had already been overcharged, you haven't yet cast the spell

Also also, you keep saying explode but the rules only say destroyed. I only say that because I wouldn't want you or anyone else to think it was something as dramatic as to cause you or anyone else additional harm beyond losing a valuable wand

[HammerJack]

Wait, what spell slot? The wand of widening still contains a spell, which is widened. It does not apply widening to spells cast with slots.

[Lupbert98]

HammerJack wrote:

Wait, what spell slot? The wand of widening still contains a spell, which is widened. It does not apply widening to spells cast with slots.

Really? I thought it was saying that it enhances a spell you're casting. Are you saying that the wand is like a normal wand? The spell is picked at crafting time, and only that spell is used with it? The spell comes from the wand, rather than working like a 1e rod?

If so, that explains everything.

[Taja the Barbarian]

HammerJack wrote:

Wait, what spell slot? The wand of widening still contains a spell, which is widened. It does not apply widening to spells cast with slots.

Correct:

Chapter 11: Crafting & Treasure / Wands / Specialty Wands wrote:

Source Core Rulebook pg. 598 4.0

Specialty wands can contain only certain kinds of spells, as noted in the stat block, and either alter the spell’s effects or affect how it can be cast. The Craft Requirements entry lists what kinds of spells the wand can hold.

In PF1 Terms, you have an item that casts a Widened version of a specific spell once (or twice) per day, not a metamagic rod of widening that can be applied to any spell you cast.

I should note that this detail was apparently missed in Age of Ashes, as we found a metamagic wand when playing it where they failed to mention the actual spell it contained...

[Lupbert98]

Baarogue wrote:

Also also, you keep saying explode but the rules only say destroyed. I only say that because I wouldn't want you or anyone else to think it was something as dramatic as to cause you or anyone else additional harm beyond losing a valuable wand

Good catches, and I edited my post to remove "explode". I also clarified that I meant a wand which had already been used that day. I think I had a more fundamental misunderstanding that HammerJack caught.

[Lupbert98]

Taja the Barbarian wrote:

In PF1 Terms, you have an item that casts a Widened version of a specific spell once (or twice) per day, not a metamagic rod of widening that can be applied to any spell you cast.

Thanks!