My DM has told our group that the rules say that a reach weapon (whip, spears, etc) when used to attack something in melee (say you attack an orc and your ally is on the other side) you suffer the -4 to attack for using a 'ranged' weapon on a target in melee.
I cannot find rules backing for an explanation as to where the 'reach' becomes 'ranged' in respect to this rule, as it doesn't make sense from a 'real life' perspective. (having some not-insignificant experience with armed combat with various martial weapons myself)
What's the accepted rule for this? If possible PLEASE INCLUDE A RULES SUMMARY, whether in support or contradiction, so I can refer to it later.
Thank you again.
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Your GM wrong. The rules he is trying to refer to come from the cover section of the combat rules. The rules say:
When making a melee attack against a target that isn't adjacent to you (such as with a reach weapon), use the rules for determining cover from ranged attacks.
They only count as ranged weapons for the effects of cover. You don't suffer -4 for the enemy being in melee. So, if the person with the ranged weapon had an ally (or enemy for that matter) in between him and the target then the enemy would have soft cover (+4 to AC) versus him.
It is in the Combat Section of the Core under "Cover"
When making a melee attack against a target that isn't adjacent to you (such as with a reach weapon), use the rules for determining cover from ranged attacks.
NINJA'D!!!
