| Benjamin Trefz |
Dorkis wrote:1d8-1, with a minimum of 1 damage.You have a strength of 9 and you hit an enemy with a longsword.
Is the damage 1d8 or 1d8-1?
The description of damage under the strength category (pg. 16) is a little confusing.
Actually, in Pathfinder it is a minimum of 1 nonlethal damage. If you were to roll a 1 on 1d8-1 which would normally come out to 0 damage, you deal 1 nonlethal damage.
I think it makes sense, you hit, but not with enough force to deal deadly damage. Longsword for instance might only bruise rather than actually slice skin...
| Dorkis |
Dorkis wrote:1d8-1, with a minimum of 1 damage.You have a strength of 9 and you hit an enemy with a longsword.
Is the damage 1d8 or 1d8-1?
The description of damage under the strength category (pg. 16) is a little confusing.
Ok, how about a halfling rogue that has a strength of 5?
Lets say the little guy sneak attacks (3d6) a teenager? Would the damage be 1d3-3 plus 3d6 or 1d3 plus 3d6 minus 3?
| Dorkis |
Karui Kage wrote:Dorkis wrote:1d8-1, with a minimum of 1 damage.You have a strength of 9 and you hit an enemy with a longsword.
Is the damage 1d8 or 1d8-1?
The description of damage under the strength category (pg. 16) is a little confusing.
Ok, how about a halfling rogue that has a strength of 5?
Lets say the little guy sneak attacks (3d6) a teenager? Would the damage be 1d3-3 plus 3d6 or 1d3 plus 3d6 minus 3?
What if the same halfling successfully sneak attacked a different teenager but with a +2 dagger? When do you apply the -3 to damage?
Would it be 1d3-3 plus 3d6 plus 2?