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Are they the same thing? Are they different? What are examples of each? I ask because of the craft rules: Core p. 549
Thanks
What's the morality of binding outsiders, exactly? Is binging a good-aligned creature with their Name considered evil? Is binding and working with an evil-aligned creature considered evil? Is the binding of ANY outsider considered slavery? Am I thinking too hard about this and should just consider a true-named outsider to be a faceless summoned creature?
This debate came up in my group yesterday when my intimidate-happy barbarian decided to fight a paladin of Imoedae. Apparently this particular paladin was immune to any and all fear effects, and therefore he could not be affected by any status effect that suggests he was afraid. My argument was that although the demoralize effect creates the shaken condition, nowhere in the description of the skill does it say "this is a fear effect" like fear spells would. Furthermore, the demoralize ability has no magical component to it, so saying it's a "mind-affecting ability" would be misrepresenting the ability. A magical or divine defense against magics that instil fear would doubtfully also work against someone trying to scare you manually. That's my take on the effect, anyway. Is there a clear answer to this?
The wording of the feat is: "Your ranged attacks ignore the AC bonus granted to targets by anything less than total cover, and the miss chance granted to targets by anything less than total concealment. Total cover and total concealment provide their normal benefits against your ranged attacks." Bolded is where I'm confused. It says your ranged attacks ignore the AC bonus granted to targets by ANYTHING less than total cover, so does that include, like, the AC bonus granted by armor? |
