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I don't know when Disarming Strike was released as a feat, or why it wouldn't be included as a "Critical Feat," but does that mean that on a given critical hit I can apply both Bleeding Critical and Disarming Strike? Bleeding Critical is not on the list of exclusive feats per critical hit for disarming strike:

("You can only apply the effects of one of the following feats to a given critical hit: Bull Rush Strike, Disarming Strike, Repositioning Strike, Sundering Strike, or Tripping Strike.")

And Bleeding Critical specifies:"You can only apply the effects of one critical feat to a given critical hit unless you possess Critical Mastery."

I would assume that Disarming Strike is technically a critical feat, and so you can't do both, but I just wanted to be sure. My main hesitation is two fold: 1) Disarming strike does not have Critical Focus as a prerequisite (and thus might not be a "critical feat" specified in Bleeding Critical) and 2) that bleeding critical is a sure thing, but Disarming Strike requires the confirmation roll to beat the creature's CMD (typically a good bit higher than their AC), and so wouldn't be a sure thing every crit, so maybe they're supposed to be able to work together? Any input would be appreciated, RAW or interpretations of intention.

Bleeding Critical: https://www.d20pfsrd.com/feats/combat-feats/bleeding-critical-combat-critic al/

Disarming Strike: https://www.d20pfsrd.com/feats/combat-feats/disarming-strike-combat/

Disarming strike says: “Whenever you score a critical hit with a melee attack, you can disarm your opponent, in addition to the normal damage dealt by the attack.”

Does that mean disarm plus normal *non-crit* damage, or plus normal damage *for a critical hit*

Link to feat here: https://www.d20pfsrd.com/feats/combat-feats/disarming-strike-combat/

Is there any official rule on what action type it is, or how long it takes, to spread out a portable hole enough to activate it? *If* someone wanted to spread out their portable hole during combat, what action type would that be? Or is this just something to talk with one's GM about?

If the creature is getting its natural armor bonus from it's skin/hide, does Slough causing the creature to shed its skin/hide remove the creature's natural armor bonus?

What are the restrictions on the age of the things you create? For example, when you create a human out of a pebble, is it default at its prime, or could you make a baby (perhaps to serve as bait for a monster or to trick your paladin into a moral imperative situation). And *if* you can make a baby out of a pebble, can you make a baby out of a person... Polymorph a humanoid creature into a baby of the same creature type? And *if* you polymorph them into a baby of their creature type, does their aging process continue from their original form, or do they begin aging as a baby of their creature type?

Or, if you cast PaO on a creature who has a 20 year life expectancy, and you polymorph it *permanently* into a creature with a 40 year life expectancy, or one that ages at a different rate (magical beasts vs animals), which aging process do you follow?

So I know that for monsters that have this ability, as with most special abilities, that the DC calculation is 10 + 1/2 Racial HD + Con Modifier, however I was wondering if things such as Poison, Breath Weapon, Horrific Appearance, etc. all fell under the ruling in the Polylmorph subsection of the Transmutation section of the Magic rules, that says :"The DC for any of these abilities equals your DC for the polymorph spell used to change you into that form."

It doesn't mention those (poison, breath weapon, etc...) in the area above that ruling, in fact it only talks about gaining "a number of other benefits, including movement types, resistances, and senses," but never specifically mentions anywhere in that section any offensive abilities. I'm assuming you use this line to calculate them, especially sense none of the things the section actually talks about even have save DC's for them... Just wanted to make sure I was understanding this correctly and that it is the correct ruling

So, Polymorph any object even gives the example of pebble to human, so we'll use a slight derivative of that. Let's say there's an enemy hiding behind a 5' x 10' wall that is 6" thick, made of stone. I polymorph that wall into, oh I don't know, let's hypothetically say I want to make a T-Rex or just anything in general big and scary to be hovering over the guy now. Walls, in the traditional sense, don't really have "hit dice" for me to apply to my new T-Rex, so does the "health" of the wall by its thickness become the hp of the T-Rex while it is in that form?

Do I convert the 15hp/inch for stone into the HP of my T-Rex? so a T Rex with 90HP? Or do I use the base stats for any T Rex's HP (which you wouldn't do if you were doing, say, a squirrel polymorphed into a T Rex)

Edit: I know the logistics behind this aren't great, since it would be a T Rex with base 10 physical stats, modified only by Beast Shape, so like a 14 STR. It's more just the idea of it for the giggles.

Wanted to be sure I was correct in my understanding that slashing grace *does* still function when you make a flurry of maneuvers (Maneuver Master Monk Archetype) so long as you use the weapon to perform that maneuver... FoM replaces, not alters, FoB, and does not invoke TWF, like Brawler’s Flurry, so theoretically if I don’t invoke the use of my other hand at all in my FoM then Slashing Grace is fine. Was wondering if there was anything I missed for a RAW argument on this, though feel free to comment any “rules as intended” opinions (understand of course, that those are just that... don’t want you guys eating each other on another thread)

The above mentioned ability says you gain paralysis “as the ghoul ability,” and that “If you’re a ghoul with this bloodline, instead of gaining this ability, your levels in sorcerer stack with your racial Hit Dice when determining the DC of your paralysis and disease special abilities.”

Does that mean other sorcerers get their level added, or they only get their con (since most player races don’t get racial hit die), while ghoul sorcerers get a scaling ability? It seems weird to me that every other sorcerer gets only 10+Con, but a ghoul gets 10+1/2HD +1/2level + Con

Just the question listed above... since the weapon interacts with incorporeal as if it were also incorporeal, does that mean you can force the enemy to interact with it via the reposition combat maneuver?

I’ve been looking and may have simply missed it, but the general question is if a magic weapon special ability that you can only place on melee weapons, such as keen, still functions if the weapon is thrown and therefore used in a ranged attack.

When I throw a +1 keen dagger, does the threat range revert to 19-20 X2 or is it still 17-20?

I’m really looking for an official ruling since I can’t seem to find one, but well supported interpretations of other rules are certainly welcome

Hello all, I was wondering if the racial trait "Shadowhunter" would apply to the save made when your shadow companion is destroyed as a Shadowdancer . The ability reads:

"If a shadow companion is destroyed, or the shadowdancer chooses to dismiss it, the shadowdancer must attempt a DC 15 Fortitude save. If the saving throw fails, the shadowdancer gains one permanent negative level. A successful saving throw avoids this negative level."

and ShadowHunter Racial trait reads:

"They also gain a +2 bonus on saving throws to remove negative levels,"

So I suppose my questions is, does the initial save to avoid receiving a negative level fall under the umbrella of saving to remove a negative level?

Thanks

So for some abilities in pathfinder for classes below full-BAB, you can use your class level in place of your BAB.. if you are multi-classed does this translate to “class level instead of BAB gained from levels in that class”? Or is my +13 BAB overruled by my 1 monk level?

Could an Eldritch Archer who uses Daggers with a blinkback belt and quick draw use TWF/Improved TWF/Greater TWF along with Ranged Spell Combat and Ranged Spellstrike? To throw out general numbers, could a character with a +10 atk bonus take a -2 for spell combat, using spellstrike to deliver a ray spell, and also take an additional -2 for TWF to throw a third dagger, making his full-round attacks effectively +6 (Ranged Spellstrike)/ +6 Normal Attack/ +6 Offhand Attack?

Mostly I'm wondering if the phrase "this functions much like two-weapon fighting" in the Spell Combat ability description takes the place of actually being able to use TWF with it.

Can a swashbuckler with both the Bladed Brush and Spear Dancing Style feat make a full-attack, using both ends of the glaive, and still get the benefit from Swashbuckler's Precise Strike based on the benefit of Bladed Brush which states:

"When wielding a glaive, you can treat it as a one-handed piercing or slashing melee weapon and as if you were not making attacks with your off-hand for all feats and class abilities that require such a weapon (such as a duelist’s or swashbuckler’s precise strike)."

The way I read this it should work, but I've heard a lot of opinions that it doesn't. In my mind, using the Glaive normally is still making attacks with your off hand, you're just using your main hand and off-hand to make a single attack at 1.5X STR and 3/1 Power Attack, so Spear Dancing Style simply modifies the way you're attacking with your off-hand.

Is there any official ruling on this or other interpretations based on official rules/FAQs?

I was wondering if the clause in this ability, "by spending 3 points, she can manifest a two-handed melee weapon (but not a double weapon)," would apply to weapons that are modified by the Spear Dancing Style Feat? Would I be able to spend 3 points to manifest a Ranseur (not a double weapon) and then enter Spear Dancing Style to grant it the double-weapon property? Or would this somehow force the weapon to be dismissed?

I've heard a few opinions on this, but was wondering if anyone knew an official ruling on it?

The argument I've heard is basically that spell combat states a -2 on melee attacks, plus the fact that a missed ranged spellstrike with Eldritch Archer means you lose the spell. These two things together are the essential argument for why Eldritch Archer does not take a -2 on their attacks from Ranged Spell Combat.

Any input is welcome. Thank you

So at level 9, Magi can choose a Magus arcana called Reach Spellstrike which allows you to use melee touch spells with your ranged spellstrike class ability (such as with the Eldritch Archer).

My question is: does this mean that a missed ranged attack dismisses the charge of the melee touch spell, or do I maintain the spell charge like normal with Melee Touch spells?

Thank you for any input, see the ability here: https://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/base-classes/magus/magus-arcana/paizo-magu s-arcana/reach-spellstrike-su/

Hi all, I've played pathfinder for about 2 years, but I've always stayed away from martial classes (for the most part). So i just had a general question. I've noticed that at level 6, where our party is right now, that my character has a much (much) higher to-hit than anyone else in the party (an inquisitor, bard/rogue, and a druid). Now obviously I'm full BAB, so that's a big part of it, but for most encounters I simply *can't* miss unless I roll a 1.

To give you an Idea, I'm currently Swashbuckler 5/Weapon Master (fighter) 1, and I've grabbed improved and greater trip (because with swashbuckler, maximizing AOO is the optimal build I've considered). So on a normal attack, my trip is at +19, which means the following AOO is at +19 (+15, with the enemies -4 to AC for being prone). Depending on the creature, and we're fighting mostly humanoids, their CMD is between 20-25, with an AC hovering around, if not below, 20. It just feels like my character cannot miss. Is that supposed to be how martial classes are played, or is my character party-breaking? I'm trying not to trip-lock, but it just makes more sense to have the enemy prone AND attacked than just attacked. Looking for some opinions before I take this farther and grab Spring Attack and Whirldwind Attack, which make me even more "inconvenient" to fight against.

A quick breakdown of to-hit for my character
6 BAB + 4 Dex + 2 Weapon Enhancement Bonus + 1 Weapon Focus + 1 Swashbuckler Weapon Training + 1 Sword Scion (trait).

I do less damage than the 2H inquisitor on hit (obviously), but I feel like my near-inability to miss might make the game less enjoyable for my party, not to mention that with extra panache and combat reflexes I can effectively never be hit in melee because my AC is 1d20 + 15 with a parry. Any input is welcome.

Thanks

So I'm creating a magus, and it just makes sense to me that it should work this way, but I was wondering what the definitive ruling would be.

Hypothetically speaking, let's say I'm a level 10 magus and among the magus arcana I've chosen is the "Throwing Magus" arcana, allowing me to spend one point from my arcane pool to add 'throwing' and 'returning' to the possible enhancements of my weapon. On my turn in initiative I choose to spend a point from my arcane pool to enhance my weapon as a swift action. I opt to spend a second point from my arcane pool while doing this to be able to add "throwing" and "returning" to the selection. I choose to add a +1 throwing returning enhancement bonus to my +2 Warhammer. I now have a +3 throwing returning Warhammer.

I would like to use Spell Combat to cast a spell and throw the hammer. *I am not attempting to use Spellstrike to deliver the spell.* I do not see the problem with being able to throw the hammer, since the RAW clearly separate casting the spell from attacking: "A magus can choose to cast the spell first or make the weapon attacks first, but if he has more than one attack, he cannot cast the spell between weapon attacks." What is the practical difference between casting a spell and then making 2 or more melee attacks compared to casting a spell and then making a single ranged attack with the melee weapon that I can throw? Remember, IT WAS THROUGH A MAGUS ARCANA CLASS ABILITY THAT I GRANTED IT THE THROWING AND RETURNING POWER IN THE FIRST PLACE.

It just seems utterly arbitrary to say "well yes it's a melee weapon, but because you've magically enhanced it to be able to be throw, you cannot use that magical enhancement on it during Spell Combat," especially since the rules make a clear separation between the attack(s) and the spell cast (unless you're using Spellstrike, which I am not planning to with the thrown hammer).