| Verthal |
The part of the rule(s) being used in the argument comes from the description of the flame blade that states: "You wield this blade-like beam as if it were a scimitar."
The stated implication being that wielding it like a scimitar means it is a weapon, and the spell strike can be used because the description of spell strike states "he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack".
Is there precedence for this that we could use to resolve this one way or another?
ArmouredMonk13
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I would say that if you are wielding it like a 1h weapon, then feats that apply to that 1h weapon [like Dervish Dance], and special abilities that apply to that 1h weapon, apply to it too. So I would say yes, in the same way that a lot of people say that a monk loses AC bonus class feature if he wields a Ring of Force Shield because it is used as a shield.