One of my players attempted to cast a spell earlier with a metamagic rod in hand. An enemy, thinking the rod was a wand or similar weapon, used a prepared action to disarm the character of his metamagic rod WHILE CASTING THE SPELL.
What happens? Does it risk disrupting the spell? Does it go off and if so, does it still get the benefits of metamagic?
In short, what happens exactly?
The character cannot use the rod.
You might make him make a basic concentration check to cast the spell but that would be a double win on one disarm.
It would be a judgement call if getting the rod knocked out of his hand is enough of a jarring to call for a concentration check. Since he took no actual damage, if he is called to make a check he will probably pass.
A readied action happens 'just before the action that triggers it' so the rod is gone before the spell is cast and therefore he gets no metamagic benefit.
A readied action happens before the action that triggers it so the rod is gone before the spell is cast and therefore he gets no metamagic benefit.
This.
A readied action happens 'just before the action that triggers it'...
How does one rationalize that?
PC: I ready an action to attack the enemy if he comes through this doorway.
GM: Alright. A moment later an enemy enters the doorway.
PC: I whack him over the head!
GM: You can't.
PC: Why not?
GM: Because he hasn't entered the room yet at the time your prepared action goes off.
PC: Your daft! What's the point of readying an action then?
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A readied action happens 'just before the action that triggers it'...How does one rationalize that?
PC: I ready an action to attack the enemy if he comes through this doorway.
GM: Alright. A moment later an enemy enters the doorway.
PC: I whack him over the head!
GM: You can't.
PC: Why not?
GM: Because he hasn't entered the room yet at the time your prepared action goes off.
PC: Your daft! What's the point of readying an action then?
I'd say that with that rational the readied action would be delayed until it were possible.
But for a better explanation, furthur down the page on Readying an Action, it says "If the triggered action is part of another character's activites, you interrupt that character."
So coming through a door would be a move action and you'd get your attack in before said move action was complete.
"Assuming he is still capable of doing so, he continues his actions once you complete your readied action"
With that last line, I refer you back to your original question. The readied action diarms the person, thus disarmed he cannot use the metamagic rod for a bonus.
I'd leave it up to the GM discretion for a Concentration check.
You could say channeling the rod and your spells energies were vital to the compeletion of the spell so you need a Concentration to save the spell.
or
You could take the more literal reading as 'just before the action that triggers it' meaning he hasn't started to cast the spell yet and reacting to the disarm would allow him to continue with the spell without the rod, or maybe even switch up spells if altogether if you are nice :P
*all quotes are from page 203 of the Core Book
A readied action happens 'just before the action that triggers it'...How does one rationalize that?
PC: I ready an action to attack the enemy if he comes through this doorway.
GM: Alright. A moment later an enemy enters the doorway.
PC: I whack him over the head!
GM: You can't.
PC: Why not?
GM: Because he hasn't entered the room yet at the time your prepared action goes off.
PC: Your daft! What's the point of readying an action then?I'd say that with that rational the readied action would be delayed until it were possible.
But for a better explanation, furthur down the page on Readying an Action, it says "If the triggered action is part of another character's activites, you interrupt that character."
So coming through a door would be a move action and you'd get your attack in before said move action was complete.
"Assuming he is still capable of doing so, he continues his actions once you complete your readied action"
With that last line, I refer you back to your original question. The readied action diarms the person, thus disarmed he cannot use the metamagic rod for a bonus.
I'd leave it up to the GM discretion for a Concentration check.
You could say channeling the rod and your spells energies were vital to the compeletion of the spell so you need a Concentration to save the spell.
or
You could take the more literal reading as 'just before the action that triggers it' meaning he hasn't started to cast the spell yet and reacting to the disarm would allow him to continue with the spell without the rod, or maybe even switch up spells if altogether if you are nice :P*all quotes are from page 203 of the Core Book
Ah. So it isn't necessarily "before the action" so much as it is "before the action is completed."
Ah. So it isn't necessarily "before the action" so much as it is "before the action is completed."A readied action happens 'just before the action that triggers it'...How does one rationalize that?
PC: I ready an action to attack the enemy if he comes through this doorway.
GM: Alright. A moment later an enemy enters the doorway.
PC: I whack him over the head!
GM: You can't.
PC: Why not?
GM: Because he hasn't entered the room yet at the time your prepared action goes off.
PC: Your daft! What's the point of readying an action then?I'd say that with that rational the readied action would be delayed until it were possible.
But for a better explanation, furthur down the page on Readying an Action, it says "If the triggered action is part of another character's activites, you interrupt that character."
So coming through a door would be a move action and you'd get your attack in before said move action was complete.
"Assuming he is still capable of doing so, he continues his actions once you complete your readied action"
With that last line, I refer you back to your original question. The readied action diarms the person, thus disarmed he cannot use the metamagic rod for a bonus.
I'd leave it up to the GM discretion for a Concentration check.
You could say channeling the rod and your spells energies were vital to the compeletion of the spell so you need a Concentration to save the spell.
or
You could take the more literal reading as 'just before the action that triggers it' meaning he hasn't started to cast the spell yet and reacting to the disarm would allow him to continue with the spell without the rod, or maybe even switch up spells if altogether if you are nice :P*all quotes are from page 203 of the Core Book
I think the meaning is the same, even if the words are different.
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Also, Ravingdork, look at how the pc worded the readied action: As soon as he "comes through" the doorway. That would suggest passing the threshold.
The GM then responds with the badguy "entering" the doorway. Disallowing the readied action means the DM is just being an overly semantic retard. You still get the readied action, only it's a split second later when the PC's condition has actually been met by the enemy coming through or passing through the door.
Also, Ravingdork, look at how the pc worded the readied action: As soon as he "comes through" the doorway. That would suggest passing the threshold.
The GM then responds with the badguy "entering" the doorway. Disallowing the readied action means the DM is just being an overly semantic retard. You still get the readied action, only it's a split second later when the PC's condition has actually been met by the enemy coming through or passing through the door.
So does your interpretation here mean that the OP is all about the actual wording?
"I ready an action to disarm this guy the instant he begins casting a spell" might be different from "I ready an action to disarm this guy when he is halfway through the action of casting a spell."
Are those different? Is it really just a matter of looking "at how the PC worded his readied action"? Is this a loophole to word it right (like a Wish spell) or you don't get what you want?
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Also, Ravingdork, look at how the pc worded the readied action: As soon as he "comes through" the doorway. That would suggest passing the threshold.
The GM then responds with the badguy "entering" the doorway. Disallowing the readied action means the DM is just being an overly semantic retard. You still get the readied action, only it's a split second later when the PC's condition has actually been met by the enemy coming through or passing through the door.So does your interpretation here mean that the OP is all about the actual wording?
"I ready an action to disarm this guy the instant he begins casting a spell" might be different from "I ready an action to disarm this guy when he is halfway through the action of casting a spell."
Are those different? Is it really just a matter of looking "at how the PC worded his readied action"? Is this a loophole to word it right (like a Wish spell) or you don't get what you want?
I'm saying that in the example given, the DM used the wording as a jackass loophole. Often, the wording wouldn't matter. In your example of a caster, the effect is the same either way. However, for a DM to do what he mentioned would be along the lines of wish wording. It'd be this type of DM that slaps an AoO on you when you draw your weapon, because your defenses were down while you reached for ink, quill, and paper to "draw" with. Such DMs need to be shot in the face with a hammer.
How does one rationalize that?
It is worded in that fashion so that readied actions can actually have a chance to stop someone else from DOING something. If it was not worded like that then the action would happen in what would be 'logical' order, after the trigger effect, and since D&D is a game of sequence you would NEVER be able to actually INTERUPT someone from doing something.
Like an AoO. It happens 'before' the effect that triggered it. If it didn't, you would never be able to get an AoO on someone with your reach weapon if they move next to you. If the attack comes after the trigger then the person is now too close to use your reach weapon to actually hit them.
That is one example but I think you get the reasoning. :)