Sword of Heironeous

Tenkinos's page

Organized Play Member. 11 posts. No reviews. No lists. No wishlists. 3 Organized Play characters.


RSS


With the wording on greater trip....

Benefit: You receive a +2 bonus on checks made to trip a foe. This bonus stacks with the bonus granted by Improved Trip. Whenever you successfully trip an opponent, that opponent provokes attacks of opportunity.

The second part were is says "that opponent provokes attacks of opp" does this mean that it provokes for everyone or just you? Meaning can my allies get in on this Delicious A of O as well?


By the reading below I'm a bit confused, it says to make a free ranged attack with a ranged weapon. Does this mean that in a turn i can attack normally with my bow and then get a second free attack with my bow with my bow that has a spell into the attack? Or, is it just stating that its a free action to put the spell of my choice (limited by range ect.) into the one ranged attack and both attacks (ranged bow attack & magic spell) go off when/if it hits the target?

Ranged Spellstrike (Su)

At 2nd level, whenever an eldritch archer casts a spell that calls for a ranged attack, she can deliver the spell through a ranged weapon she wields as part of a ranged attack. Instead of the free ranged attack normally allowed to deliver the spell, an eldritch archer can make one free ranged attack with a ranged weapon (at her highest base attack bonus) as part of casting this spell. The attack does not increase the spell’s range.


Deflection Aura (Su): Once each day, you can emit a 20-foot aura for a number of rounds equal to your cleric level. Allies within the aura gain a +2 deflection bonus to AC and combat maneuver defense.

Will this effect self or not?


BadBird wrote:
You only get to bypass prerequisites on a feat if you take it as a 'bonus feat' at the listed levels.

Ok, thanks. That's what i figured but i was reading some stuff in a different post that confused me so I just wanted to be sure


So from what I've been seeing you can bypass pre-req to get a bonus feat, is this only when your gaining your bonus feat at the indicated levels or does this also apply when you are getting a feat at any level.

In my case I just leveled up and want to grab snatch arrows and want to bypass pre-req and I'm thinking about grabbing one of the feats from the bonus pool, but as a non-bonus feat. Do I still get to bypass or do i need pre-req per the norm.


In PFS is there any restriction on playing as a special race like Vishkanyas? I'm building a ranger but don't want to build then find out its not allowed


So the feat says that you use immediate action to roll sense motive and you can use it as your AC, immediate actions, if I'm correct are not limited to one per round when done not on your turn. Does this mean I could dodge more then one attack with this style.note my sense motive heck is currently 18 so even a low roll of 4 would be better then my ac, and a average roll of 10 would give me 29 for that attack. According to the feat this is how it reads it should work. But it feel a bit powerful so I wanted to make sure before I use him tomorrow. I would greatly appreciate any help, thanks


Jack Brown wrote:

A wand is simply a holder of 50 charges of a spell.

Just like a CLW wand, the person activating the wand would either need the spell on their spell list, or would need to make a successful DC 20 use magic device check.

A wand of mate armor, in PFS would have a one hour duration per spell (since it would be a caster level 1 spell, unless you had a better one on a chronicle)

If my character lacks the check could i loan it to a wizard in the party (if one exists) and have them easily use the wand on me when need be?


I want to use a wand of mage armor for my Monk so i can still retain my wisdom bonus to AC. I'm still fairly new so i'm unsure exactly how wants work. Do all wands come with 50 uses (like the wand of cure light wounds) or do they vary? Also do i need to have anything speical to use a wand with mage armor charges?


okay, thanks


So if i'm correct you can spend 2 PP to get an item of a value with 750gp or less does this mean if i spend 4pp i can get an item with a value of 1500gp or less? also, can you spend a mix of PP and gp say 4pp( equaling 1500gp and 500gp to by an item with a cost of 2,000gp?