Scenario:
Does the energy resistance subtract from both the shocking property of the weapon and shocking grasp separately? In other words subtract 10 from both or does it only subtract 10 from the total electric damage done from that attack. 1d8 + 1d6 Electricity - 10 + 5d6 Electtricity - 10
The bolded section of spellstrike has me interpreting it as both the spell and the weapon damage come from a single melee attack. This combined with the bolded section from Energy Resistance, which specifies that energy resistance only ignores a certain amount of damage per attack leads me to believe that in the scenario above, the Energy Resistance 10 Electricity would only be applied to the total damage dealt by the attack. I am posting here to determine if my interpretation is correct or not. Thank you in advanced for your help. Spellstrike (Su): At 2nd level, whenever a magus casts a spell with a range of “touch” from the magus spell list, he can deliver the spell through any weapon he is wielding as part of a melee attack. Instead of the free melee touch attack normally allowed to deliver the spell, a magus can make one free melee attack with his weapon (at his highest base attack bonus) as part of casting this spell. If successful, this melee attack deals its normal damage as well as the effects of the spell. If the magus makes this attack in concert with spell combat, this melee attack takes all the penalties accrued by spell combat melee attacks. This attack uses the weapon's critical range (20, 19–20, or 18–20 and modified by the keen weapon property or similar effects), but the spell effect only deals ×2 damage on a successful critical hit, while the weapon damage uses its own critical modifier. Energy Resistance: A creature with resistance to energy has the ability (usually extraordinary) to ignore some damage of a certain type per attack, but it does not have total immunity.
When resistance completely negates the damage from an energy attack, the attack does not disrupt a spell. This resistance does not stack with the resistance that a spell might provide.
I want to remind everyone that this discussion is regarding a Tiefling with both the racial trait Prehensile tail and the Grasping Tail feat. Which reads as follows: Quote:
DM_Blake wrote:
Except all the options you listed would leave a person engaged in combat at a disadvantageous position to defend themselves or attack. Whereas a tail would not hinder movement or vision as would happen with trying to hold a rod anywhere else.
Diego Rossi wrote:
I'm not trying to troll but if a tail can pick an item off the ground or take a specific item out of a pack filled with numerous other things as a swift action, I don't see why it wouldn't be able to wave a rod around. Is there a clear definition somewhere that states what it takes to wield a rod. I know there's the wield definition but what exactly does wield mean in the context of a rod.
Thymus Vulgaris wrote:
The bolded sections would be debatable since there isn't a clear definition on what action it takes to put a weapon from a hand into the tail and vice versa. I would personally agree that it is a free action but I have run into situations where the GM ruled that it used up a swift to put anything in the tail.
Once again thank you for your reply. I would be overjoyed if that is the way it works. I am just trying to argue the other side of this argument. I just wish to see a consensus on how it works. Locally this is not allowed because "wield" is not the same as "hold". The idea being that in order to "wield" something it has to be in your hands, not a tail. Edit for additional information. http://paizo.com/threads/rzs2n316?Wield#17 http://paizo.com/threads/rzs2n316?Wield#23
Ravingdork wrote:
Thank you for the reply. The objection I see is that all metamagic rods say "The wielder can cast up to three spells per day that..."So the issue I see is whether wielding is the same as holding. Note that the Grasping Tail feat specifically states that you cannot wield weapons with the tail. |
