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Hey guys,

my problem is poorly described in the topic, let me fix that here.

So my Slumbering Tsar party recently encountered a single Basilisk and had some bad luck with his petrifying gaze. On his first attempt, the Basilisk picked three out of six with a single gaze.

So the party traveled back to town and had a high level mage npc destoning them using Stone to Flesh. Two people beat the DC 15, one didn't and died. In his presence of mind, the cleric instantly reacted and cast Breath of Life to save him.

That's where the problem is. Breath of Life does not save creatures slain by a death effect, so... is a failed Stone to Flesh considered as a death effect?

I, as the GM of this party, intervened and said, that it would not be possible to save the fallen comrade that way. In terms of my unterstanding, a death effect is a spell or effect which instantly kills you regardless of hp or other conditions, just like Phantasmal Killer or Symbol of Death.

It's not mentioned in the description of the spell, so how would you consider the ruling to be here? Is my argumentation going the right way or did I fail to see something important? Please help me and let me know what you think! Thank you :)

I'm GMing a campaign written by myself with 6 players. The PCs are at Lvl 7 right now and we had five deaths up to this point with one of the PCs killed being revived.

They mostly die to enemy CC-Spellcasters and hardhitters. Had a single vampire in the last session f*$#ing the party up via dominate person. She gained control of the Ranger and the Sorceress. The Ranger went crazy and chopped the paladin to pieces with his greataxe, while the sorceress pewpewed the ranger to death with some tasty scorching rays.

I don't try to kill players on purpose from the beginning of an encounter, let's rather say I try and soften them up. But if anyone gets outmaneuvered somehow by the enemy, I try and set his death in stone. But honestly that rarely occurs and even if so, a lot of bad luck is intended there (fumble-, critrolls on attacks and saves and all that stuff)...

Thanks for the answers so far!

@Vod Canockers: There is a built-in trick by my mighty GM-Powers ;) - They weren't told the command word at all on a sidenote. But nevertheless that's not the topic to be discussed.

As far as I got this now, following facts:

- You do not exactly SPEAK a certain language, when tongues is cast.
- The only things you understand and speak is still 'displayed' in your language, but by the power of the spell, words spoken are directly 'translated' into the mind of the caster and the person he speaks to.
- You don't learn any languages.

Hey Folks,

I'm wondering how the ruling on this one is.

The description of the spell says:

'This spell grants the creature touched the ability to speak and understand the language of any intelligent creature, whether it is a racial tongue or a regional dialect.'

At least to me, druidic is neither a racial tongue, nor is it a regional dialect. I searched google and this board for answers, but did not find anything clearly relevant to this problem. Thus excuse me if I missed seeing something obvious.

On a sidenote: I ask this question because it's currently relevant in the campaign I'm GMing where the players will come across a magic item which will need a command word for being activated. This word has to be spoken in druidic language and thus could only be tricked by utilizing 'Use Magic Device'.

Well with the last part just being for seeing the circumstances, I wonder how tongues works in the special case of the druidic language.

Thanks in advance for your help!

Ah yea, was wondering :D that's exactly what I meant, thank you for the answer :)

Thanks for the quick and helpful answer! I definitely got the part with the chain-tripping - my second question was aiming at a potential counteract from A (like tripping B with an AoO and not getting tripped himself) which has rather nothing to do with chain-tripping itself but with interrupting a move action through trip.

I've got a similar question to this situation with the following scenario given:

##E##
##*##
#B*##
##*##
##*##
##A## (imagine these lines being directly under the previous lines)

Player A does a charge against enemy E. As of the charge way (*) he provokes an AoO from Enemy B. As I got the wording of the rules right now, B may trip A.

Question 1: Does B end both of A's actions? A's move action is definitely ended upon a successful trip from B. Would A still be able to attack B or is A's standard action also disrupted by the trip due to being combined with the move action?

Question 2: Does B himself provoke an AoO from A if B doesn't have improved trip?