An inquisitor attempting to sunder the weapon of an opponent having already activated the inquisitor's bane (Su) ability:
Bane (Su): At 5th level, an inquisitor can imbue one of her weapons with the bane weapon special ability as a swift action. She must select one creature type when she uses this ability (and a subtype if the creature type selected is humanoid or outsider)...
At the time of the sunder attempt, the bane (Su) ability had already been designated to the proper creature type/subtype, against which the inquisitor was engaged in combat:
Bane: A bane weapon excels against certain foes. Against a designated foe, the weapon's enhancement bonus is +2 better than its actual bonus. It also deals an extra 2d6 points of damage against the foe. To randomly determine a weapon's designated foe, roll on the following table.
In this circumstance, the inquisitor is wielding a longsword with a +2 enhancement bonus, while the opponent is wielding a longbow with a +3 enhancement bonus. It is my understanding, though I cannot find the verbiage for the rule to post here, that a weapon must have an equal or greater enhancement bonus in order to damage a magic weapon/armor.
In this case, would a longsword with a +2 enhancement bonus and with the bane (Su) activated be able to damage a longbow with a +3 enhancement bonus? Our group discussed this at length and wanted to put this question to the messageboards. Would the verbiage regarding the inquisitor Bane (Su)...
...Against a designated foe, the weapon's enhancement bonus is +2 better than its actual bonus...
...allow a +2 enhancement bonus longsword to act as if it had a +4 total enhancement bonus, for the purposes of sundering the weapon of the designated bane (Su) target?