Lord Pendragon |
I seem to recall in 3.5 that if you disarmed someone and had a free hand, you'd wind up with the weapon yourself.
Is this not the case in Pathfinder?
If your attack is successful, your target drops one item it is carrying of your choice (even if the item is wielded with two hands). If your attack exceeds the CMD of the target by 10 or more, the target drops the items it is carrying in both hands (maximum two items if the target has more than two hands). If your attack fails by 10 or more, you drop the weapon that you were using to attempt the disarm. If you successfully disarm your opponent without using a weapon, you may automatically pick up the item dropped.
Lord Pendragon |
So yes, if you disarm without a weapon (ie with an open hand) you get to keep the weapon.
Consider a magus. He has a scimitar in his main hand, but his other hand is free. He disarms a foe using the scimitar (therefore being able to use applicable bonuses to his scimitar toward his CMB). He succeeds.
Does he now hold the weapon in his off hand, or is it at the feet of his foe?
Patryn of Elvenshae |
Seems pretty straight forward. "If you successfully disarm your opponent without using a weapon." Did the Magus use his Scimitar (and its associated bonuses) to disarm him? Is a Scimitar a weapon? Yes? Then he doesn't automatically pick up the disarmed weapon.
Yep - that's how I read it, too, especially given then "Attempting to disarm a foe while unarmed imposes a –4 penalty on the attack" line in the Disarm description.